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1. When should you use parameters?
A. When creating conditional Top N reports.
B. When identifying the data source location.
C. When identifying trends in data.
D. When creating dynamic groups.
Answer: D

2. Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A. Modification Date
B. Modification LastDate
C. Modification LastUpdate
D. Modification Time
Answer: A

3. You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report.
Which two methods can you use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A. Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C. From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D. Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer: BD

4. You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A. Insert a group name field.
B. Insert a summary field.
C. Insert a running total field.
D. Insert a formula field.
Answer: B

5. What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A. UI Batch Size
B. Database Timeout
C. Maximum LOV Size
D. Maximum Rowset Records
Answer: AC

6. Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A. Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B. Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C. Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D. Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: BC

7. Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A. If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B. If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C. If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D. If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer: AC

8. You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic.
Which method must you use to achieve the required result?
A. Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to view just the Top N countries.
B. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert. Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C. Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D. After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a grand total that is greater than N.
Answer: B

9. You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to use report alerts to accomplish this.
Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A. Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B. Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D. IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = "Enabled"
Answer: A

10. Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A. Numbervar x;
x = 5;
B. Dim x as Number
x = 5
C. Dim x as Number
x := 5
D. Numbervar x;
x := 5;
Answer: D

11. In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time.
Which two menu options become available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A. Move
B. Insert
C. Delete
D. Copy
E. Cut
Answer: DE

12. Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A. Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the Context menu.
C. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D. Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer: C

13. You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas. How can you do this?
A. Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B. Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C. Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D. Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer: B

14. Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose two.)
A. IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B. NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C. IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D. NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer: CD

15. You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A. Browse Field
B. Repository Explorer
C. Formula Field Search
D. Global Formula Search
Answer: D

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1. Table "t1" is defined as follows:
CREATE TABLE t1 (value VARCHAR(5));
A set of SQL statements were executed in the following order. Select the number of rows that table "t1" has after execution.
BEGIN;
INSERT INTO t1 VALUES (’AA’);
SAVEPOINT point1;
INSERT INTO t1 VALUES (’BB’);
SAVEPOINT point2;
INSERT INTO t1 VALUES (’CC’);
ROLLBACK TO point1;
INSERT INTO t1 VALUES (’DD’);
END;
A. 1 row
B. 2 rows
C. 3 rows
D. 4 rows
E. 0 rows
Answer: B

2. Select two correct descriptions about views.
A. A view is created by ‘DECLARE VIEW’, and deleted by ‘DROP VIEW’.
B. A view is a virtual table which does not exist.
C. A view is created to simplify complicated queries.
D. You can create a view with the same name as already existing tables.
E. A view only exists while the postmaster is running, and is deleted when the postmaster stops.
Answer: BC

3. Select two suitable statements regarding the following SQL statement:
CREATE TRIGGER trigger_1 AFTER UPDATE ON sales FOR EACH ROW
EXECUTE PROCEDURE write_log();
A. It is defining a trigger "trigger_1".
B. Every time ‘UPDATE’ is executed on the "sales" table, the "write_log" function is called once.
C. The "write_log" function is called before ‘UPDATE’ takes place.
D. ‘UPDATE’ is not executed if "write_log" returns NULL.
E. ‘DROP TRIGGER trigger_1 ON sales;’ deletes the defined trigger.
Answer: AE

4. PostgreSQL can use an index to access a table. Select two incorrect statements about indexes.
A. An index is created by ‘CREATE INDEX’, and deleted by ‘DROP INDEX’.
B. By using an index effectively, searching and sorting performs faster.
C. There are B-tree, Hash, R-tree and GiST index types.
D. By creating an index, performance always improves.
E. Creating an unused index does not affect the performance of a database at all.
Answer: DE

5. Select three SQL statements which return NULL.
A. SELECT 0 = NULL;
B. SELECT NULL != NULL;
C. SELECT NULL IS NULL;
D. SELECT NULL;
E. SELECT ‘null’::TEXT;
Answer: ABD

6. Select two suitable statements regarding the data types of PostgreSQL.
A. One field can handle up to 1GB of data.
B. ‘n’ in CHARACTER(n) represents the number of bytes.
C. Only the INTEGER type can be declared as an array.
D. There is a non-standard PostgreSQL data type, called Geometric data type, which handles 2-dimensional data.
E. A large object data type can be used to store data of unlimited size.
Answer: AD

7. Select the correct SQL statement which concatenates strings ‘ABC’ and ‘abc’ to form ‘ABCabc’.
A. SELECT ‘ABC’ . ‘abc’;
B. SELECT cat(’ABC’, ‘abc’) FROM pg_operator;
C. SELECT ‘ABC’ + ‘abc’;
D. SELECT ‘ABC’ + ‘abc’ FROM pg_operator;
E. SELECT ‘ABC’ || ‘abc’;
Answer: E

8. Table "t1" is defined below.
Table "t1" has a column "id" of type INTEGER, and a column "name" of type TEXT.
t1:
The following SQL is executed while client "A" is connected.
BEGIN;
SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE id = 2 FOR UPDATE;
SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE id = 1 FOR UPDATE; — (*)
While the second ‘SELECT’ statement, shown with (*), is being executed, a separate client "B" connects and executes the following SQL.
Select the correct statement about the execution results.
UPDATE t1 SET name = ‘turtle’ WHERE id = 2;
Note: the default transaction isolation level is set to "read committed".
A. The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current connection for client "A" is finished.
B. The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current transaction for client "A" is finished.
C. The ‘UPDATE’ process for client "B" proceeds regardless of the condition of client "A".
D. The process of client "B" immediately generates an error.
E. The processes for both clients are blocked, and an error stating that a deadlock has been detected is generated.
Answer: B

9. Select two incorrect statements regarding ‘DOMAIN’.
A. When defining a domain, you can add a default value and constraints to the original data.
B. Domain is a namespace existing between databases and objects such as tables.
C. A domain is created by ‘CREATE DOMAIN’.
D. A domain can be used as a column type when defining a table.
E. To define a domain, both input and output functions are required.
Answer: BE

10. SQL statements were executed in the following order:
CREATE TABLE fmaster
(id INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, name TEXT);
CREATE TABLE ftrans
(id INTEGER REFERENCES fmaster (id), stat INTEGER, date DATE);
INSERT INTO fmaster VALUES (1, ‘itemA’);
INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1, CURRENT_DATE);
Select two SQL statements that will generate an error when executed next.
A. INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1, CURRENT_DATE);
B. INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (2, 1, ‘2007-07-07′);
C. UPDATE fmaster SET name = ‘itemAX’ WHERE id = 1;
D. UPDATE fmaster SET id = 100 WHERE id = 1;
E. UPDATE ftrans SET id = 200 WHERE id = 1;
Answer: AC

11. The "sample" table consists of the following data:
How many rows are returned by executing the following SQL statement?
SELECT DISTINCT ON (data) * FROM sample;
A. 2 rows
B. 3 rows
C. 4 rows
D. 5 rows
E. 6 rows
Answer: B

12. Select two suitable statements about sequences.
A. A sequence always returns a 4-byte INTEGER type value, so the maximum value is 2147483647.
B. A sequence is defined by ‘CREATE SEQUENCE’, and deleted by ‘DROP SEQUENCE’.
C. Although the "nextval" function is called during a transaction, it will have no effect if that transaction is rolled back.
D. A sequence always generates 0 or consecutive positive numbers.
E. A sequence number can be set by calling the "setval" function.
Answer: BE

13. Select two transaction isolation levels supported in PostgreSQL.
A. DIRTY READ
B. READ COMMITTED
C. REPEATABLE READ
D. PHANTOM READ
E. SERIALIZABLE
Answer: BE

14. The following SQL statements were executed using psql.
Select the appropriate statement about the result.
LISTEN sign_v;
BEGIN;
NOTIFY sign_v;
COMMIT;
LISTEN sign_v;
A. At the point that ‘NOTIFY sign_v’ is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification ’sign_v’ received" is output.
B. At the point that ‘COMMIT’ is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification ’sign_v’ received" is output.
C. At the point that ‘SELECT * FROM pg_user;" is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification ’sign_v’ received" is output.
D. When ‘LISTEN sign_v’ is executed for the second time, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification ’sign_v’ received" is output.
E. The message "Asynchronous notification ’sign_v’ received" is not received while in this connection.
Answer: B

15. The table "score" is defined as follows:
gid | score
—–+——-
1 | 70
1 | 60
2 | 100
3 | 80
3 | 50
The following query was executed. Select the number of rows in the result.
SELECT gid, max(score) FROM score
GROUP BY gid HAVING max(score) > 60;
A. 1 row
B. 2 rows
C. 3 rows
D. 4 rows
E. 5 rows
Answer: C

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1. When using Job scheduling, what planning principle is available, that is not available with Operation scheduling?
A.Planning with queue times
B.Planning on task groups
C.Planning with resource efficiency percent
D.Planning with transportation times
Answer: b

2. Which of the following kinds of set up information are required in other modules, before you can use the Production module?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Company information
B.Items
C.Journal names
D.Routes
Answer: ab

3. Which of the following are possible job types in the route group?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Queue before
B.Phantom
C.Setup
D.Subcontractor
Answer: ac

4. When is Operation scheduling used?
A.When the operation is divided into jobs.
B.When it is required that starting and ending times are obtained for each operation.
C.When a rough estimate of the time frame for production is required.
D.When task groups are required for optimal capacity utilization.
Answer: c

5. Which of the following statements reflect the differences between Operation scheduling and Job scheduling in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Operation scheduling uses forward scheduling only, while Job scheduling can use any of the 12 available scheduling directions.
B.Operation scheduling is date scheduled and Job scheduling is date and time scheduled.
C.When an operation specifies a work center group, Operation scheduling schedules to the work center group and Job scheduling schedules to a specific work center.
D.Operation scheduling uses unlimited capacity and Job scheduling uses limited capacity.
Answer: bc

6. When you outsource an operation to a vendor, after you create work centers and operations, you must update the route to include the vendor operation. Then you must update the BOM by setting the line type to Vendor. What else must you do?
A.Set the "Job schedule only" flag in the Item table to ensure that the production is always Job scheduled.
B.Attach the vendor operation to the BOM line using the operation number field.
C.Assign the vendor to the property field of the BOM line to be able to schedule it.
D.Ensure that all operations in the route are using the same routing group.
Answer: b

7. Which of the following are rules for creating the operation numbers for a simple network route?
Choose the 3 that apply.
A.The last operation in the route must have zero in its next operation field.
B.The first operation in the route must have the lowest operation number.
C.The operation number must be multiples of ten.
D.The operations are linked by the next operation field, which contains the operation number of the following operation.
Answer: abd

8. Which inventory parameters are mandatory?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Location
B.Configuration
C.Site
D.Serial Number
Answer: bc

9. A company has insufficient machine capacity to meet the increased demand for its products. The company found a local machine shop that can provide the additional capacity. Prior to updating the routes, the subcontractor’s machines need to be set up as work centers. What work center type should be assigned?
A.Machine
B.Tool
C.Vendor
D.Human resource
Answer: c

10. You are configuring a dimension group for some new products at your company. The new products come in different colors that must be specified when the item is produced or sold. But because the item color does not change the cost, color is not used for financial tracking. How can the dimension group be configured to allow this?
A.Activate the Color item dimension and ensure Financial inventory is not selected.
B.Activate the Color item dimension and ensure the Blank receipt allowed is selected.
C.Activate the Color item dimension and ensure the Profit/loss entry is not selected under Allow entry.
D.Do not activate the Color item dimension.
Answer: a

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1. Which method on RunBase class does the following statement describe?
"This method receives a container as a parameter and restores the type specific variables of the class"
A.initValue
B.main
C.unpack
D.getFromDialog
Answer: c

2. Isaac, the Systems Developer, wants to modify the method SalesLine.calcLineAmount(). He wants to be sure that the change does not cause problems when it is used with the application. How can he find out where it is used?
A.Use the Reverse Engineering tool
B.Use the Cross-Reference tool
C.Right-click on the method and select Find
D.Right-click on the method and select Compare
Answer: b

3. Isaac, the Systems Developer, needs to run a form from his X++ code. Select the correct statement to replace the /* insert answer here */ comment in the following code:
Args args;
FormRun formRun;
;
args = new args(formstr(inventTable));
formRun = classFactory.formRunClass(args);
/* insert answer here */
A.formRun.init();formRun.prompt();formRun.wait();
B.formRun.init();formRun.run();
C.formRun.init();formRun.run();formRun.prompt();
D.formRun.init();formRun.run();formRun.wait();
Answer: d

4. Isaac, the Systems Developer has moved the axCUS.aod and axCONen-us.ald files from the development application directory to the test application directory. What must he also do to ensure the labels are updated correctly?
A.Recompile the application.
B.Synchronize the database.
C.Delete the axCONen-us.ali file.
D.Synchronize the labels.
Answer: c

5. Isaac, the Systems Developer, wants to debug code in the class SalesFormLetter when it is called from the sales order form. What steps must he take to achieve this?
Choose three that apply.
A.Install the debugger on the client.
B.Allow debugging to be executed on the AOS.
C.Open the debugger from the Tools menu before the code is executed.
D.Set a breakpoint in the code.
Answer: abd

6. How can the best-practice error in a display method be turned off, after it has been investigated whether record-level security is required?
A.Add the comment://Record-security documented
B.Add the keyword Secure to the method definition.
C.Add the comment://BP deviation documented
D.Add the keyword Ignore to the method definition.
Answer: c

7. When writing a direct SQL statement, what would be the correct syntax to execute a statement and tell the Code-Access Security layer that it is safe?
A.new SqlStatementExecutePermission(sqlString).secure();stmt.executeQuery(sqlString);CodeAccessPermission::revertSecure();
B.new CodeAccessPermission(sqlString).assert();stmt.executeQuery(sqlString);CodeAccessPermission::revertAssert();
C.new SqlStatementExecutePermission(sqlString).assert();stmt.executeQuery(sqlString);SqlStatementExecutePermission::revertAssert();
D.new SqlStatementExecutePermission(sqlString).assert();stmt.executeQuery(sqlString);odeAccessPermission::revertAssert();
Answer: d

8. Isaac, the Systems Developer, needs to write X++ code to iterate through the elements in a Map object. What class(es) can he use to do this?
Choose two that apply.
A.MapEnumerator
B.MapIterator
C.Map
D.ListIterator
Answer: ab

9. What are the main journals in Microsoft Dynamics AX?
Choose three that apply.
A.Ledger
B.Inventory
C.Project
D.Trade
Answer: abc

10. To obtain an overview of the data types inherited from AmountMST, which of the following would you use?:
A.The Reverse Engineering tool.
B.The "Used by" node in the AOT.
C.The "References" node in the AOT.
D.The Application Hierarchy Tree.
Answer: d

11. Which runtime class instances exist for a running report with a data source?
Choose two that apply.
A.ReportDesignSpecs
B.QuerySelect
C.QueryRun
D.ReportRun
Answer: cd

12. How can modifications be moved between a development and a test system?
Choose two that apply.
A.Export the modifications from the development system to a .xpo file and import it into the test system.
B.Copy the .aod and .ald files from the development application file directory to the test application file directory.
C.Use the application merge tool in the test application, and specify the development application directory.
D.Run the application upgrade wizard from the development application and specify the test application file directory.
Answer: ab

13. What is the purpose of the RunBase framework?
A.It defines a common structure for all reports in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
B.It defines a common structure for all access rights in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
C.It defines a common structure for all data manipulations in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
D.It defines a common structure for all forms in Microsoft Dynamics AX.
Answer: c

14. Where are the online help files stored?
A.In the AOT.
B.In .chm files on the client machine.
C.In .hlp files on the AOS.
D.In .ahp files in the application files directory.
Answer: b

15. Which of the following are methods on the Args class that will accept a string type as a parameter?
Choose two that apply.
A.caller()
B.name()
C.parm()
D.element()
Answer: bc

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1. Lynne created a Book Review application that has a default access level of Author. She created a Review document, but was unable to edit the document later. Why would this problem occur?
A. The document form design does not include a Readers type field.
B. The document form design does not include a Authors type field.
C. Her ACL entry needs to have the Edit document option selected.
D. She needs at least Author access with the Create Documents option selected.
Answer: B

2. Herb has some data to display in a form, in a form, and he would like to have it display in a formatted grid. What option would he use to format this data layout?
A. Create > Table
B. Create > Layer
C. Create > Section > Table
D. Create > Layout Region > Table
Answer: A

3. Cheryle would like to have access to her mail file while she is traveling and disconnected from the network. After she arrives at her destination, she wants to connect to the network and synchronize her mail file updates with the server version of her mail file. How can she accomplish this task?
A. Create a local copy of her mail file.
B. Create a local replica of her mail file.
C. Create a local mirror copy of her mail file.
D. Create a local synchronized copy of her mail file.
Answer: B

4. Mac is planning a Change Control application that will be used by thousands of staff located in 10 different countries. What is one thing that Mac can do to help optimize the performance of the application for his users?
A. On the Advanced tab of Database properties, enable Support specialized response hierarchy and enable Allow simple search.
B. On the Advanced tab of Database properties, enable Don’t Support specialized response hierarchy and disable Allow simple search.
C. Use File > Application > New Copy to create a copy of the application on a server in each country, and have users access the application from a local server.
D. Use File > Replication > New Replica to create a replica of the application on a server in each country, and have users access the application from a local server.
Answer: D

5. Christopher is making a new application using the NewVideo design template that he plans to customize. He wants to make sure that his new application will not get future modifications to the NewVideo design template. Which one of the following should Christopher do to accomplish this task?
A. Create a blank application and refresh the design of the new application using the NewVideo design template.
B. Create the new application from the NewVideo design template and clear Inherit future design changes in the New Application window.
C. Create the new application from the NewVideo design template and select Lock Design Documents in the application Design properties
D. Create the new application from the NewVideo design template and then open the application Design properties and select Database is a master template.
Answer: B

6. Shandi has created a Suggestion database in Designer. She would like to create additional databases based on the Suggestion database design, and she would like to have them automatically updated whenever she changes the original design. How would she accomplish this task?
A. Select the Database Inheritance option Allow inheritance in the additional databases.
B. Select the Database Inheritance option Inherit from master template in the additional databases.
C. Select the Database Inheritance option Database file is a master template in the original Suggestion database.
D. Select the Database Inheritance option Allow other databases to inherit design in the original Suggestion database.
Answer: C

7. Joe wants to display a company logo in the background of a view in his sales application. How can he do this task?
A. Use an Image Resource as the background graphic for the view.
B. Use a URL as the background graphic for the view, where the URL points to the logo.
C. Display the view in a frameset, and set the background of the view’s frame to an Image Resource or URL depicting the logo.
D. He can’t do this. Viwes cannot have background graphics.
Answer: A

8. Kelly supports the Inventory application. This application is accessed by staff in India, the UK, Brazil, and the USA. For reasons of performance and contingency planning, the office in each country has its own server. kelly needs the Inventory application to reside on each of these servers, and she neeeds to ensure that the application data and design is kept in sync among all of these locations. How can Kelly meet this requirement?
A. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a synchronized copy of the application by selecting File > Synchronization > New Copy
B. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a mirror of the application by selecting File > Application > New Mirror, and specify the target Server.
C. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a replica of the application by selecting File > Replication > New Replica, and specify the target Server.
D. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a copy of the application by selecting File > Application > New Copy. specify the target Server, and select the Synchronize option.
Answer: C

9. Tony wants to create a duplicate of the Video application. He wants to keep a version of the data on the same server as the production application but does not want any new documents or document modifications to be relicated into his new database after he creates it. Which one of the following should Tony do to create his archive?
A. Create a new copy of the database.
B. Create a replica copy of the database.
C. Usse Microsoft Windows Explorer to create a copy of the database file.
D. Create a replica copy of the database and disable replication on the database properties.
Answer: A

10. Tim has enabled document locking in the Sales application. He has noticed some documents that have been locked for serveral hours. The users tell him that their computers had crashed while they were working on documents. What can Tim do to make the documents unlocked?
A. Have an administrator run fixup on the database.
B. Write an agent to run on selected documents. Use the formula:
FIELD $Lock := @DeleteField
C. Have someone with Manager access right-clik on a locked document and select Unlock Document.
D. The nightly compact of the database will unlock the documents. Tim can also manually compact the database.
Answer: C

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1. Ursula has been working today on several applications. She has just reopened Domino Designer and sees only the Marketing applications listed in the pane on the left, but dose not see the Brainstorm application that she’d been working on. What might Ursual do to again display the Brainstorm application with the other displayed applications?
A. From the menu bar, click Project > Show Recent Projects.
B. From the menu bar, click File > Application > Show All Applications.
C. Click the menu icon from the application navigator and select Show Active Projects.
D. Click the folders icon on the application navigator menu bar and select Show Recent Applications.
Answer: D

2. Virginia is writing JavaScript code in the onclick event of an image, but she isn’t seeing any code completion from the editor. How can she get a JavaScript editor that includes code completion?
A. Press Control+Spacebar to trigger code completion.
B. Change the Eclipse preferences to include code completion in every JavaScript editor.
C. Create the JavaScript library, then include that library in her XPage.
D. Click the Open Script Dialog button to open the modal JavaScript editor, which features code completion.
Answer: D

3. Joshua would like to have a cookie set on his Movie Rental XPage before it loads on the browser. Which view would Joshua use to add this functionality?
A. Events view
B. Controls view
C. Properties v iew
D. Applications view
Answer: A

4. Odette is designing the index XPage that is used for navigation for her Domino application. For what purpose might Odette use the Outline Designer in Eclipse while working with the index Xpage?
A. To drag elements to rearrange sections and change the sequence of elements on the XPage.
B. To drag controls from the controls palette onto a hierarchical representation of the XML sourcecode , typically during the initial design of the XPage.
C. Aside from the expand and collapse icons, nothing in an Outline view is clickable. Nonetheless, the Outline view provides an extremely useful means to browse the XML elements of an XPage.
D. The Outline view provides a hierarchical representation of the XML source code in XPages. The developer can quickly update various settings from within the Outline view using right-click menu options for each element.
Answer: A

5. Darren is working the Outline view on a new Xpage. He drags a button control so that it is above an edit box control. What effect does this have on the XPage in the Design editor?
A. The button control will move above and to the left of edit box control.
B. There will be no effect until Darren saves the XPage, then the button control will move above and to the left of edit box control.
C. There will be no effect until Darren clicks the Synchronize Navigator with Editor tab in the application navigator, then the button control will move above and to the left of edit box control.
D. There will be no effect until Darren clicks the Synchronize Navigator with Editor tab in the Outline view, then the button control will move above and to the left of edit box control.
Answer: A

6. Carlos added an edit box control to his registration XPage. He wants to make the field a required field with a message displaying to the user if the field is left blank. Where would he add these additional features to the edit box control?
A. Editor
B. Events view
C. Properties view
D. Controls palette
Answer: C

7. Devin has been developing an application that includes an XPage. When he opened the application in Designer this morning, he noticed a small "x" icon by the XPages listing in the Applications view. He had closed several of the Eclipse views yesterday, had does not see any errors displayed in the remaining views. How can Devin locate the problems in the source code?
A. Right-click the "X" icon from the Applications view and select Go To Error. The Problems view displays with the cursor at the first error.
B. Display the Problems view by selecting Window > Show Eclipse Views > Problems. Right-click a displayed error and select Go To. The Source view opens to the line with the error.
C. Click to expand the XPage listing. A small "x" icon dispalys by the XPage with the errors. Double-click the name of the XPage and the Source view opens to the line with the error.
D. Click to expand the XPage listing. A small "x" icon dispalys by the XPage with the errors. Double-click the name of the XPage. The Source tab opens with the cursor at the first error line.
Answer: B

8. Matthew is designing an XPage with many different controls nested within each other. How can he see the hierarchical relationship of all the controls and also be able to rearrange them?
A. using the Outline view
B. Using the Source tab of the Editor view
C. Under the XPages setion in the application navigator.
D. using the Java perspective to access the raw XML files behind the application.
Answer: A

9. Lainey has recently upgraded to Notes Domino 8.5. She is now exploring the design of her applications to see what new features might be available. What is the purpose of the controls palette that Lainey sees?
A. The controls palette contains controls, such as Edit Box, File Upload, and Table that the developer can drag onto the XPage canvas.
B. The controls palette is another way to access the same items that are available from the Create menu for forms, views, XPages and other design elements.
C. The controls palette contains items like Edit Box, Button, and Label that the developer can drag onto XPages forms. The controls palette is not available for views and pages.
D. The controls palette contains UI and other controls (such as Button, Link, and Image) that allow the developer to drag controls onto XPage or pagr elements. The controls palette is not available for other elements.
Answer: A

10. Cade is building an XPage for the Sales application. What are the options from which he can select when defining a data source from the data palette?
A. @DbLookup and @DbColumn
B. Domino view and Domino document
C. Data connections and DB2 access views
D. Data connections, DB2 access views, and file resources
Answer: B

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1. RIP adopts ( ) as the transport protocol with the port number 520.
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. PPP
Answer: B

2. Common routing protocols are ( ).
A. IPX
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IP
Answer: BC

3. The command to save the current configuration on the H3C router COMWARE 3.4 is ( ).
A. write
B. save
C. copy
D. reset
Answer: B

4. What algorithm is adopted in PPP CHAP authentication? ( )
A. MD5
B. DES
C. RSA
D. SHA
Answer: A

5. Two routers are in back-to-back connection with the following configuration. Can they communicate with each other? ( )
[Router1] display current-configuration
#
sysname Router1
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<"TX$_S#6.NM(0=0)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<"TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
local-user h3c
password simple h3c
service-type ppp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Serial0/0
link-protocol ppp
ppp authentication-mode chap
ppp chap user h3c
ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
[Router2] display current-configuration
#
sysname Router2
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<"TX$_S#6.NM(0=0)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<"TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
local-user h3c
password simple 3com
service-type ppp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Serial0/0
clock DTECLK1
link-protocol ppp
ppp authentication-mode chap
ppp chap user h3c
ip address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
A. Yes
B. No
C. No decision can be made, for there is not enough information.
Answer: B

6. The H3C AR routers can be upgraded in different ways. Which of the following is not supported? ( )
A. Xmodem
B. FTP
C. TFTP
D. HGMP
Answer: D

7. Which of the following is right about OSPF? ( )
A. It is fast in convergence.
B. It is loop-free, and supports variable-length subnet mask.
C. It supports equal-cost multipath and area division.
D. It supports authentication, and the protocol packets sending with multicast.
Answer: ABCD

8. Both the transport layer and the data link layer perform error check. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

9. A network protocol is a set of rules and conventions that prescribe how network devices inter-communicate. The communication parties shall understand and abide the protocol. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

10. Which layer of the OSI reference model implements encryption. ( )
A. Physical layer
B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Presentation layer
Answer: D

11. If the user data exceeds the Bc (committed burst ) in a frame relay network, the exceeding data will be dropped. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

12. The types of ACLs are identified with numbers. The range 4000-4999 refers to the ( ).
A. Interface-based ACL
B. Basic ACL
C. Advanced ACL
D. MAC-based ACL
Answer: D

13. To test the gateways that a packet will pass through from the source host to the destination, use the command ( ) in the H3C COMWARE command line.
A. ping
B. tracert
C. show path
D. display path
Answer: B

14. Frame Relay adopts ( ) as the switching method.
A. Routing
B. Circuit switching
C. Fast switching
D. Packet switching
Answer: D

15. Two routers are in back-to-back connection with the following configuration. Can they communicate with each other? ( )
[Router1]display current-configuration
#
sysname Router1
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
fr switching
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<"TX$_S#6.NM(0=0)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<"TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Ethernet0/0
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Ethernet0/1
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Serial0/0
link-protocol fr
fr interface-type dce
#
interface Serial0/0.1 p2p
fr dlci 20
ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
[Router2]display current-configuration
#
sysname Router2
#
FTP server enable
#
l2tp domain suffix-separator @
#
radius scheme system
#
domain system
#
local-user admin
password cipher .]@USE=B,53Q=^Q`MAF4<<"TX$_S#6.NM(0=0)*5WWQ=^Q`MAF4<<"TX$_S#6.N
service-type telnet terminal
level 3
service-type ftp
#
interface Aux0
async mode flow
#
interface Ethernet0/0
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Ethernet0/1
ip address dhcp-alloc
#
interface Serial0/0
clock DTECLK1
link-protocol fr
#
interface Serial0/0.1 p2p
fr dlci 20
ip address 10.0.0.2 255.255.255.0
#
interface NULL0
#
user-interface con 0
user-interface aux 0
user-interface vty 0 4
authentication-mode none
user privilege level 3
#
return
A. Yes
B. No
C. No decision can be made, for there is not enough information.
Answer: A

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1. RIP 使用（ ）作为传输协议，端口号 520 。
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. PPP
Answer: B

2. 帧中继采用（ ）作为交换方式。
A. 路由
B. 电路交换
C. 快速交换
D. 分组交换
Answer: D

3. 传输层和数据链路层都会负责差错校检（ ）
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

4. PPP 的 CHAP 认证采用了什么加密算法（ ）
A. MD5
B. DES
C. RSA
D. SHA
Answer: A

5. 访问控制列表的种类利用数字来标识，其中 4000~4999 表示（ ）
A. 基于接口的访问控制列表
B. 基本访问控制列表
C. 高级访问控制列表
D. 基于 MAC 地址的访问控制列表
Answer: D

6. 下列关于 OSPF 的说法，哪些是正确的（ ）
A. 路由变化收敛速度快
B. 无路由自环，支持变长子网掩码
C. 支持等值路由和区域划分
D. 提供路由分级管理
E. 支持验证，支持以组播地址发送协议报文
Answer: ABCDE

7. 在帧中继网络中，超过 Bc （承诺突发量）的用户数据一定会被丢弃。
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

8. 在 OSI 七层参考模型中，可以完成加密功能的是（ ）
A. 物理层
B. 传输层
C. 会话层
D. 表示层
Answer: D

9. Quidway AR 系列路由器，可以用很多种方式进行升级，请问哪一种不是其支持的升级方法（ ）
A. xmodem
B. ftp
C. tftp
D. HGMP
Answer: D

10. 常见的路由协议有（ ）
A. IPX
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IP
Answer: BC

11. 在 Quidway VRP 命令行中用哪个命令可以测试数据包从发送主机到目的地所经过的网关（ ）
A. ping
B. tracert
C. show path
D. display path
Answer: B

12. Quidway 系列路由器 vrp 3.4 版本下保存当前配置的命令是（ ）
A. write
B. save
C. copy
D. reset
Answer: B

13. 网络协议是为了使计算机网络中的不同设备能进行数据通信而预先制定的一套通信双方互相了解和共同遵守的格式和约定。
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

14. 两台路由器背靠背直连，配置如下，路由器之间是否能够通讯（ ）
A. 能
B. 不能
C. 信息不足，无法判断
Answer: B

15. 两台路由器背靠背直连，配置如下，路由器之间是否能够通讯（ ）
A. 能
B. 不能
C. 信息不足，无法判断
Answer: A

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1. enable Failover option on First
4.enable Failover option on Second
5.configure virtual IP Address on First
6.configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: CD

2. configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: CD

3. Which of the following CANNOT be accomplished on a FirePass controller?
A. FirePass can generate client SSL certificates.
B. FirePass can generate server SSL certificates.
C. FirePass can deny access based on an invalid client machine certificate.
D. FirePass can import a server SSL certificate purchased from a Certificate Authority.
E. FirePass can allow access to users logging in from devices that do not have valid client side certificates, but deny selected resources.
Answer: C

4. Which of the following CANNOT be used to grant or deny access using the pre-logon sequence?
A. Username and password
B. The presence of a specific file
C. Operating system of the client computer.
D. Time of day the user is attempting to logon
E. Day of the week the user is attempting to logon
Answer: A

5. configure virtual IP Address on First
6.configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: CD

6. restart Second (Secondary)
3.enable Failover option on First
4.enable Failover option on Second
5.configure virtual IP Address on First
6.configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: CD

7. enable Failover option on Second
5.configure virtual IP Address on First
6.configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: CD

8. Which statement is FALSE about FirePass Portal Access connections and the Web Applications trace?
A. The Web Applications trace output is a zip file.
B. After being formatted, the Web Applications trace output can be viewed using a browser.
C. The Web Applications trace output shows only server side html in order to see the html the server is sending to the client.
D. The Web Applications trace output shows both client side and server side html in order to see how FirePass is translating html links before sending to the client.
Answer: C

9. Which two sequences include the "required" steps, in the correct order, for configuring Failover on the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
1.restart First (Primary)
2.restart Second (Secondary)
3.enable Failover option on First
4.enable Failover option on Second
5.configure virtual IP Address on First
6.configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: CD

10. Which two statements are true concerning Network Access Policy Checking? (Choose two.)
A. Policy checks can prevent network routing changes to the client.
B. Policy checks can prevent system registry changes to the client.
C. Policy checks can disconnect Network Access from a client when routing tables are altered.
D. Policy checks can be applied to Network Access resources and Application Tunnel resources.
E. Policy checks can terminate Network Access connections if selected processes are stopped or started on the client.
Answer: CE

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1. If upon examination of two configuration files you notice that the version number of the permanently saved configuration differs from the version number of the running configuration, it means that __________.
A. the saved configuration file has been edited, but the done command was not issued
B. the saved configuration file has been copied from flash into SDRAM using the save-config command
C. the saved configuration file has been saved into flash, but the activate-config command has not been issued
D. the saved configuration file was copied from flash into SDRAM using the activate-config command
Answer: C

2. Of the following configured local policy preferences that the Net-Net 4000 sorts through, which one of the four preference discriminators listed below would be ranked the second highest priority?
A. codec
B. lowest cost
C. next hop
D. realm
Answer: A

3. Which one of the following statements about the SIP-NAT is TRUE?
A. The Net-Net 4000 uses the SIP-NAT element to rewrite the contact-URI, the Via header and the SDP.
B. The Net-Net 4000 uses the SIP-NAT to provide translation between a home address space and an external address space.
C. The Net-Net 4000 uses the SIP-NAT to act as a service pipe to SIPD.
D. You must have at least one SIP-NAT to route traffic between realms.
Answer: B

4. SIP is an Application layer control protocol that performs which two of the following functions?
A. Establishment, modification and termination of multimedia sessions.
B. Provides resource reservation for multimedia sessions.
C. Supports redirection services.
D. Describes the supported media attributes for the session.
Answer: Ac

5. A(n) __________ is an association between a globally unique SIP or SIPS URI and the user agents contact address. This association is written by the registrar server to a database where it can be used by a proxy in the local domain.
A. location record
B. AOR
C. binding
D. public address
Answer: C

6. Which two of the following statements regarding SIP processing are FALSE?
A. An initial INVITE will contain a From header tag and a To header tag as a globally unique identifier for the dialog.
B. To avoid retransmissions, User Agents must forward received 100 Trying messages to their next hop.
C. Calls Per Second are typically measured using a 7-10 message SIP call flow including call set-up and tear down.
D. The combination of the To tag, From tag, and Call-ID completely defines a peer-to-peer SIP relationship and is referred to as a dialog.
Answer: AB

7. Which one of the following statements about SIP is FALSE?
A. The Via header field indicates the transport used for the transaction.
B. The Contact header field provides a SIP or SIPS URI that can be used to contact that specific instance of the UA for subsequent requests.
C. A SIP transaction consists of a single request and any responses to that request, which include zero or more provisional responses and one or more final responses.
D. A dialog is identified at each UA with a dialog ID, which consists of a Call-ID value, a Contact and a Request URI.
Answer: D

8. __________ is/are stored in SDRAM.
A. Licensing information
B. Boot parameters
C. Passwords
D. Logs
Answer: D

9. Which one of the four statements below about Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is FALSE?
A. SIP provides for resource reservation.
B. SIP works with both IPv4 and IPv6.
C. SIP can run on top of either UDP or TCP as the transport protocol.
D. SIP can be used to invite participants to an already existing session.
Answer: A

10. When configuring the allow-anonymous parameter in the SIP port element, a value of __________ may be configured to allow access only from user agents who have previously registered through the Net-Net 4000 or who are configured as session agents.
A. registered
B. agents-only
C. realm-prefix
D. prev-registered
Answer: A

11. Steering pools are realm specific, and by limiting the number of __________ provide constraints on the number of concurrent RTP sessions allowed on the Net-Net 4000.
A. UDP ports
B. slots
C. IP addresses
D. Realms
Answer: A

12. Using the command show redundancy sipd, redundancy statistics and transactions are displayed. Which 3 of the following statistics provide information about the state of SIP signaling checkpointing?
A. CPU Utilization
B. Error responses
C. Retransmissions sent
D. Duplicate requests
Answer: BCD

13. When SIP sessions are terminated and re-originated as they flow through the Net-Net 4000, the ____________ is rewritten to force all session related media to be routed through Net-Net 4000.
A. Via
B. From
C. SDP
D. Contact
Answer: C

14. In this scenario, the User Agents (UAs) are both SIP-enabled phones. What is the correct order of this basic SIP message flow?
1)The UAC initiates the session with an INVITE.
2)The UAS sends a 200 OK message indicating that the request has succeeded.
3)Media is exchanged bidirectionally.
4)The UAS sends a 100 Trying response back to the UAC
5)The UAC sends a BYE message. This is followed by a 200 OK final response message sent by the UAS.
6)The UAS sends a 180 Ringing message.
7)The UAC sends an ACK message confirming that it has received a final response to INVITE.
A. 1,2,4,6,7,5,3
B. 1,4,6,2,7,3,5
C. 1,7,4,6,3,2,5
D. 1,4,2,7,6,3,5
Answer: B

15. You configure the _____________and _____________elements to use the Net-Net 4000 to perform load balancing between two downstream SIP proxies.
A. realmsteering pool
B. local policysession agent group
C. session routersession router group
D. proxyproxy pool
Answer: B

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1. What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments? (Choose three.)
A. application control
B. control of executable content
C. identification of vulnerabilities
D. probing of systems for compliance
E. real-time analysis of network traffic
F. system hardening
Answer: ABF

2. What allows Cisco Security Agent to block malicious behavior before damage can occur?
A. correlation of network traffic with signatures
B. interception of operating system calls
C. scan of downloaded files for malicious code
D. user query and response
Answer: B

3. Which two of these features are key elements of the collaborative security approach? (Choose two.)
A. integration of security features in network equipment
B. Network Admission Control
C. coordinated defense of potential entry points
D. automated event and action filters
E. network behavioral analysis
F. device chaining
Answer: BC

4. Which three policy types can be assigned to a network user role in the Cisco NAC Appliance architecture? (Choose three.)
A. allowed IP address ranges
B. session duration
C. minimum password length
D. VPN and roaming policies
E. inactivity period
F. network port scanning plug-ins
Answer: BDF

5. What are two functions of Cisco Security Agent? (Choose two.)
A. authentication
B. control of executable content
C. resource protection
D. spam filtering
E. user tracking
Answer: BC

6. Drag and Drop
Answer:

7. What are three advantages of Cisco Security MARS? (Choose three.)
A. performs automatic mitigation on Layer 2 devices
B. ensures that the user device is not vulnerable
C. fixes vulnerable and infected devices automatically
D. provides rapid profile-based provisioning capabilities
E. is network topology aware
F. contains scalable, distributed event analysis architecture
Answer: AEF

8. Which certificates are needed for a device to join a certificate-authenticated network?
A. the certificates of the certificate authority and the device
B. the certificates of the device and its peer
C. the certificates of the certificate authority and the peer
D. the certificates of the certificate authority, the device, and the peer
Answer: A

9. In which two ways do Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliances achieve containment and control? (Choose two.)
A. by enabling businesses to create secure connections
B. by preventing unauthorized network access
C. by probing end systems for compliance
D. by tracking the state of all network communications
E. by performing traffic anomaly detection
Answer: BD

10. Which encryption protocol is suitable for an enterprise with standard security requirements?
A. MD5
B. 768-bit RSA encryption
C. AES-128
D. DES
E. SHA-256
Answer: C

11. SomeCompany, Ltd. wants to implement the the PCI Data Security Standard to protect sensitive cardholder information. They are planning to use RSA to ensure data privacy, integrity, and origin authentication. Which two of these statements describe features of the RSA keys? (Choose two.)
A. The public key only encrypts.
B. The public key only decrypts.
C. The public key both encrypts and decrypts.
D. The private key only encrypts.
E. The private key only decrypts.
F. The private key both encrypts and decrypts.
Answer: CF

12. Which two components should be included in a detailed design document for a security solution? (Choose two.)
A. data source
B. existing network infrastructure
C. organizational chart
D. proof of concept
E. traffic growth forecast
F. weak-link description
Answer: BD

13. Which three technologies address ISO 17799 requirements for unauthorized access prevention? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
B. SSL VPN
C. 802.1X
D. Network Admission Control
E. Cisco Security MARS
F. intrusion prevention system
Answer: ACD

14. Which three of these security products complement each other to achieve a secure e-banking solution? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco IOS DMVPN
B. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
C. CCA Agent
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
E. Cisco Security Agent
F. Cisco Trust Agent
Answer: BDE

15. Which of these items is a valid method to verify a network security design?
A. network audit
B. sign-off by the operations team
C. computer simulation
D. analysis of earlier attacks
E. pilot or prototype network
Answer: E

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1. SIP is a key enabler of intelligent communications because it allows for monitoring of _____.
A. presence
B. metrics
C. call volume
D. process
Answer: A

2. Which is NOT a common business problem addressable by Avaya’s IPT solutions?
A. Inability to get the appropriate parties together to make decision
B. Inability to communicate during a major business interruption
C. Multiple disparate systems that are expensive to maintain
D. Disconnected branch offices
Answer: A

3. Partners selling to Global Accounts at the Avaya Direct Account Team’s invitation must sell which of the following?
A. Avaya Services only
B. Avaya products only
C. Avaya content for both products and services where Avaya has an applicable offer
D. Any products or services they choose
Answer: C

4. Which are the three basic functions of the Communication Manager Software?
A. PBX functionality, Contact Center functionality, Mobility Server
B. PBX functionality, Mobility Server, IP Softphone
C. Mobility Server, Contact Center functionality, DoS Protection Server
D. Contact Center functionality, PBX functionality, SIP Enablement
Answer: A

5. Avaya will have direct resources assigned for primary coverage for which two of the following account types? (Choose two.)
A. Non Global / US Named
B. US Named
C. Global
D. All account types
Answer: BC

6. Which enterprise is defined by having over 1000 users, mulitple locations, are often multinational, and have complex business models?
A. Very-small-sized
B. Small-sized
C. Mid-sized
D. Large-sized
Answer: D

7. In the Contact Center portfolio, how does Avaya solve this customer problem: Inability to make good decisions on behalf of customers and to provide personalized customer service?
A. Access to actionable customer data through a single database and reporting platform
B. Ability to extend applications outward through the enterprise
C. Access convenient communications capabilities to find and reach people more effectively
D. Best practice use of technology
Answer: A

8. A business process consists of a set of steps that an organization typically uses to execute daily business and is _____.
A. measurable using Key Process Indicators
B. measurable using Key Performance Indicators
C. measurable using Key Process Instances
D. measurable using Key Primary Indicators
Answer: A

9. A key capability of Avaya’s IP Telephony solutions is to extend customer announcements, voicemail greetings, and other applications from the core to the branches, enabling _____.
A. a higher TCO
B. branch office managers to maintain and administer their own communications systems
C. consistent user experiences
D. each user to have a different, customized experience
Answer: C

10. Who determines the maintenance renewal strategy when a Partner has previously sold a maintenance agreement to a non Global / US Named Account? (Choose two.)
A. The Avaya Direct team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
B. The Avaya Telesales team owns the maintenance renewal strategy.
C. The end-user customer.
D. The Partner owns the maintenance renewal strategy, which may include a Channel Service Agreement, Partner Support Service / Joint Service Delivery, or Wholesale Maintenance.
Answer: CD

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1. Recordings take up how much space on a hard drive?
A. 2MB per minute
B. 200KB per minute
C. 1MB per minute
D. 650KB per minute
Answer: C

2. An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: BCE

3. When configuring Session Initiated Protocol (SIP) trunks with SIP authorization using an IP address on an IP Office system which option must be set in the SIP Line configuration form for the trunks to function correctly?
A. The customer’s NAT IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
B. The Primary Authentication Name must be set.
C. The compression mode must be set to automatic.
D. The ITSP IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
Answer: D

4. A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN.
Where in the setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. on the General tab in the menu action
B. on the General tab for each transfer action
C. on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

5. Which three pieces of information does System Status Application provide? (Choose three.)
A. configuration errors
B. local IP Office license status
C. trunk status
D. extension status
E. remote IP Office license statu
Answer: BCD

6. Which three options does the IMS user have available in Microsoft?Outlook? (Choose three.)
A. Select IMS server.
B. Select Voicemail Box.
C. Select Voicemail server.
D. Select handset for VM playback.
E. Prompt before connecting to server.
Answer: BDE

7. Which file validates the version of software that is to be loaded into the 4600 Series Telephone set?
A. bbla0_83.scr
B. 46xxsettings.txt
C. 46xxsettings.scr
D. 46xxupgrade.scr
Answer: D

8. An IP Office solution is sold to a customer who needs to connect two existing sites over their LAN.
Which two are required by Avaya to ensure the VoIP connection and calls work properly? (Choose two.)
A. firewall / filter
B. network assessment
C. a separate voice network
D. static addresses for the IP Office
Answer: BD

9. Which two operating systems are supported by VoiceMail Pro? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 2000
B. Microsoft Windows XP
C. Microsoft Windows 98 SE
D. Microsoft Windows NT
Answer: AB

10. What is necessary to upgrade the firmware for the 4600/5600 series sets on an IP Office system?
A. Manager
B. serial cable
C. third-party FTP server
D. null modem cable
Answer: A

11. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what would the default gateway for IP Office 1 be?
A. 10.10.1.1
B. 10.10.1.2
C. 192.168.10.100
D. 135.122.34.90
Answer: D

12. An IP Office application will allow an individual to select protocols and interfaces that are to be traced and decoded. The trace can either be captured directly to screen or as a log file for later analysis. Traces from different protocols can be color coded to improve the clarity of large log files.
Which application is used for this?
A. Debug View
B. System Monitor
C. Delta Server
D. System Status Application
Answer: B

13. You have an Avaya IP 412 Office with the largest supported voice compression modules (VCMs) on the system.
What is the maximum number of data channels supported on this system?
A. 20
B. 50
C. 80
D. 100
Answer: D

14. When installing IP Hardphones, the engineer wants to use the IEEE 802.3af standard to _____.
A. supply AC voltage to the IP Office
B. supply power to the IP Hardphones
C. perform Layer 3 routing for IP Hardphones
D. filter multicast traffic to the appropriate IP Hardphone
Answer: B

15. Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options are available in the IP Office?
A. Disabled, Enabled
B. Server, Enabled, Client
C. Server, Disabled, Client, DialIn
D. Server, Client, Disabled
Answer: C

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1. Which two statements about domain names are true for Modular Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. All domain names must be unique.
B. The Voice Mail Domain (VMD) is identical to the Windows Domain Name.
C. The Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and Voice Mail Domain (VMD) names must be alphanumeric.
D. The private Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) for the Message Application Server (MAS) is used only on the private network.
Answer: AD

2. What specific documentation is needed for an installer to correctly integrate a Message Networking Server with a PBX? (Choose two.)
A. completed Modular Messaging planning form
B. completed Message Networking planning form
C. Avaya Communication Manager Networking Guide
D. Switch Connections Supported for Message Networking
Answer: BD

3. Which two options are presented after starting the Data Collection Tool (DCT)? (Choose two.)
A. create a new file
B. analyze existing system
C. deploy new configuration
D. delete current configuration
Answer: AB

4. Which three are manual steps required to upgrade Message Networking from Release 2.0 to Release 3.1? (Choose three.)
A. Perform an attended system backup.
B. Run the pre-upgrade tool to help plan for the upgrade.
C. Remove the switch integration software from the MN 2.0 system.
D. Use the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup.
E. Insert the MN 3.1 DVD and run Software Update on the 2.0 system.
Answer: ABD

5. Which three line cards are used with Modular Messaging? (Choose three.)
A. H.323
B. Analog
C. DLC-16
D. T1/E1-QSIG
E. Set Emulation
Answer: BDE

6. According to Avaya documentation, which step must be taken to connect the cables supplied with a digital set emulation board to the PBX?
A. Connect the board using the provided RJ-48C (Ethernet) cable.
B. Connect the installed boards to one end of a standard RJ-11 tip/ring cable.
C. Connect the board using the provided PBX station interface D/82JCT-U cable.
D. Connect the male end of the provided CT bus cable to the top of each port board.
Answer: C

7. Which two statements are true about anti-virus software on Modular Messaging with a Message Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose two.)
A. The MSS already has its own anti-virus software.
B. Anti-virus software should not be configured to perform scans each time a file is accessed.
C. Once anti-virus software has been installed the Modular Messaging system will update it automatically.
D. Avaya recommends that the customer install anti-virus software on each Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) and any Supplementary Server.
Answer: BD

8. Before beginning to configure and test the port boards in the Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS), a user must first obtain the proper configuration note for the particular PBX and integration.
Where can the proper configuration note be found?
A. Help screens
B. Installation Guide
C. MAS documentation CD
D. http:\support.avaya.com
Answer: D

9. Before requesting a license for a newly installed Modular Messaging system, which information is required from the on-site installer?
A. Voice Mail Domain Name
B. Voice Mail Domain Identifier (aka VMD ID or Host ID)
C. IP addresses of all servers in the Voice Mail Domain
D. Local Administration Account names and passwords for all Messaging Application Servers (MASs)
Answer: B

10. Before going to a customer site to begin installing a Modular Messaging R3.1 system, which three items should be obtained from support.avaya.com? (Choose three.)
A. Configuration Notes
B. System planning form
C. Outlook Client software
D. Customer account information
E. Supplementary Server software
Answer: ABC

11. The customer has an existing Modular Messaging (MM) system with a Message Storage System (MSS), which was installed with MM release 1.1. They are upgrading to MM 3.0 and adding an Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) to provide more port capacity.
The customer wants to retain their existing MAS. They have T1 Dialogic boards. They currently have Aria and Audix TUIs implemented for their subscribers.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. They must upgrade all dialogic boards.
B. They must upgrade all MASs to S3500 servers.
C. They must consider impact of TUIs on port capacity.
D. The new MAS will have only two slots for port boards.
Answer: CD

12. To conduct a multiple Avaya Message Application Server (MAS) installation, where in the Voice Mail Domain must the Avaya Mailbox Monitor and the Message Waiting Indicator (MWI) services be activated?
A. in the first MAS
B. in different MASs
C. on the same MAS
D. in at least two MASs
Answer: C

13. Which two actions should be performed to upgrade a customer’s system from Modular Messaging Release R3.0 to R3.1, using the existing servers for the Message Storage Server (MSS) and the Message Application Server (MASs). (Choose two.)
A. Uninstall and re-install RealSpeak software on the MASs
B. Upgrade Dialogic drives if Dialogic port boards are in the MAS
C. Install MAS boot image (4 DVDs) to upgrade to Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
D. Install the Pre-upgrade and Backup Verification tool to check the health of the Release 3.0 system
Answer: AB

14. Which statement is true about installing a Modular Messaging with the Message Storage Server (MSS) into the Corporate Windows Domain?
A. The only step required is to select "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" in the Data Collection Tool (DCT).
B. The MSS TCP/IP networking form must be configured with the appropriate Corporate Windows Domain values.
C. "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" must be selected in the Data Collection Tool (DCT) and on the Message Storage Server Windows Domain Setup administration form.
D. "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" is done manually on the MAS after the configuration wizard is run, and then done manually on the MSS using the Windows Domain Setup form.
Answer: C

15. Which IP address is acceptable for use on the private network for an installation of Modular Messaging R3.x with the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)?
A. 10.255.255.255
B. 168.192.1.250
C. 172.31.1.245
D. 183.81.168.1
Answer: C

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1. Rate your level of proficiency in envisioning and designing an application, including analyzing and refining the logical, physical, and database designs of the application.
A. I am considered an expert on this. I have successfully done this multiple times without assistance or error. I train or supervise others on this activity. Others come to me when they have questions or need assistance with this.
B. I have successfully done this without assistance and with few errors, but I do not train or supervise others on this activity.
C. I am proficient at this. I have successfully done this on my own, but I occasionally require assistance for some types of problems encountered when doing this and/or occasionally make minor errors.
D. I have successfully done this with the assistance of others or specific instructions.
E. I am a novice. I have not yet done this or am learning.
Answer: A

2. Rate your level of proficiency in stabilizing and testing an application, including defining a functional test strategy, performing integration testing, and performing a code review.
A. I am considered an expert on this. I have successfully done this multiple times without assistance or error. I train or supervise others on this activity. Others come to me when they have questions or need assistance with this.
B. I have successfully done this without assistance and with few errors, but I do not train or supervise others on this activity.
C. I am proficient at this. I have successfully done this on my own, but I occasionally require assistance for some types of problems encountered when doing this and/or occasionally make minor errors.
D. I have successfully done this with the assistance of others or specific instructions.
E. I am a novice. I have not yet done this or am learning.
Answer: A

3. You create applications by using Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2008 and the .NET Framework 3.5.
You deploy a new Windows Forms application in a test environment. During the test process, an error message that includes an incomplete stack trace is reported.
You review the following code segment that has caused the error.
Public Function AddNewMission(ByVal missiondate As DateTime, _
ByVal mission As String, ByVal missionLink As String) As Integer
Dim pgr As DALCode = New DALCode("cnWeb")
Try
Dim retcode As Int16 = _
pgr.AddNewMission(missiondate, mission, missionLink)
Return retcode
Catch ex As Exception
Throw New Exception(ex.Message.ToString())
Finally
pgr.Dispose()
End Try
End Function
You need to modify the code segment to display the entire stack trace.
What should you do?
A. Remove the CATCH block.
B. Remove the FINALLY block.
C. Add a Using block to the TRY block.
D. Replace the THROW statement in the CATCH block with Throw (ex).
Answer: A

4. How many years of experience do you have in developing enterprise applications by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5?
A. I have not done this yet.
B. Less than 6 months
C. 6 months- 1 year
D. 1- 2 years
E. 2- 3 years
F. More than 3 years
Answer: A

5. You create an application by using Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2008 and the .NET Framework 3.5.
The application includes a component. The component will be referenced by the .NET and COM applications.
The component contains the following code segment.
Public Class Employee
Public Sub New(ByVal name As String)
End Sub
End Class
The .NET and COM applications must perform the following tasks:
Create objects of the Employee type.
use these objects to access the employee details.
You need to ensure that the .NET and COM applications can consume the managed component.
What should you do?
A. Change the Employee class to a generic class.
B. Change the constructor to a no-argument constructor.
C. Set the access modifier of the class to Friend.
D. Set the access modifier of the constructor to Protected.
Answer: B

6. You create a Windows Forms application by using Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2008 and the .NET Framework 3.5.
The application contains the following code segment.
Public Function GetProductByID(ByVal ProductID As String) As DataSet
Dim ds As DataSet = New DataSet("ProductList")
Dim SqlSelectCommand As String = "Select * FROM PRODUCTS WHERE
PRODUCTID=" + ProductID
Try
Dim da As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter()
Dim cn As SqlConnection = New
SqlConnection(GetConnectionString())
Dim cmd As SqlCommand = New SqlCommand(SqlSelectCommand)
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text
cn.Open()
da.Fill(ds)
cn.Close()
Catch ex As Exception
Dim msg As String = ex.Message.ToString()
‘Perform Exception Handling Here
End Try
Return ds
End Function
You need to ensure that the code segment is as secure as possible.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the connection string is encrypted.
B. Use a StringBuilder class to construct the SqlSelectCommand string.
C. Add a parameter to the cmd object and populate the object by using the ProductID string.
D. Replace the SELECT * statement in the SqlSelectCommand string with the SELECT <column list> statement.
Answer: C

7. You create applications by using Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2008 and the .NET Framework 3.5.
You deploy a new Windows Forms application in a test environment. During the test process, an error message that includes an incomplete stack trace is reported.
You review the following code segment that has caused the error.
public int AddNewMission(DateTime date, string mission, string missionLink)
{
try
{
DALCode pgr = new DALCode("cnWeb");
int retcode = pgr.AddNewMission(date, mission, missionLink);
return retcode;
}
catch (Exception ex)
{
throw new Exception(ex.Message);
}
finally
{
pgr.Dispose();
}
}
You need to modify the code segment to display the entire stack trace.
What should you do?
A. Remove the CATCH block.
B. Remove the FINALLY block.
C. Add a Using block to the TRY block.
D. Replace the THROW statement in the CATCH block with throw(ex).
Answer: A

8. You create an application by using Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2008 and the .NET Framework 3.5.
The application has a class that contains a method named NewEvent. The NewEvent method contains the following code segment.
using (SqlConnection cn = new SqlConnection(connString))
{
SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand();
cmd.Connection = cn;
cmd.CommandText = "prcEvent";
cmd.Parameters.Add("@Date", SqlDbType.DateTime, 4);
cmd.Parameters.Add("@Desc", SqlDbType.VarChar, 8000);
cmd.Parameters.Add("@Link", SqlDbType.VarChar, 2048);
cmd.Parameters["@Date"].Value = date;
cmd.Parameters["@Desc"].Value = eventText;
cmd.Parameters["@Link"].Value = eventLink;
cn.Open();
retcode = cmd.ExecuteNonQuery().ToString();
}
During the test process, a user executes the NewEvent method. The method fails and returns the following error message:
"A stored procedure named prcEvent requires a parameter named @Date."
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Set the CommandText property of the cmd object to dbo.prcEvent.
B. Set the CommandType property of the cmd object to CommandType.TableDirect.
C. Set the CommandType property of the cmd object to CommandType.StoredProcedure.
D. Replace the ExecuteNonQuery method of the cmd object with the ExecuteScalar method.
Answer: C

9. Rate your level of proficiency in designing and developing an application framework, including choosing an appropriate implementation approach for the application design logic, defining the interaction between framework components, and defining validation and event logging strategies.
A. I am considered an expert on this. I have successfully done this multiple times without assistance or error. I train or supervise others on this activity. Others come to me when they have questions or need assistance with this.
B. I have successfully done this without assistance and with few errors, but I do not train or supervise others on this activity.
C. I am proficient at this. I have successfully done this on my own, but I occasionally require assistance for some types of problems encountered when doing this and/or occasionally make minor errors.
D. I have successfully done this with the assistance of others or specific instructions.
E. I am a novice. I have not yet done this or am learning.
Answer: A

10. You create a Windows Forms application by using Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2008 and the .NET Framework 3.5.
The application contains the following code segment.
public DataSet GetProductByID(string ProductID)
{
DataSet ds = new DataSet("ProductList");
string SqlSelectCommand = "Select * FROM PRODUCTS WHERE
PRODUCTID=" + ProductID;
try
{
SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter();
SqlConnection cn = new SqlConnection(GetConnectionString());
SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(SqlSelectCommand);
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text;
cn.Open();
da.Fill(ds);
cn.Close();
}
catch (Exception ex)
{
string msg = ex.Message.ToString();
//Perform Exception Handling Here
}
return ds;
}
You need to ensure that the code segment is as secure as possible.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the connection string is encrypted.
B. Use a StringBuilder class to construct the SqlSelectCommand string.
C. Add a parameter to the cmd object and populate the object by using the ProductID string.
D. Replace the SELECT * statement in the SqlSelectCommand string with the SELECT <column list> statement.
Answer: C

11. Which of the following technologies do you use regularly? Choose all that apply.
A. Microsoft ASP.NET
B. Windows Forms
C. Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF)
D. Microsoft ADO.NET
E. Windows Communication Foundation (WCF)
F. Distributed technologies in .NET 3.5
Answer: A

12. Rate your level of proficiency in designing application components, including creating the high-level design of a component, defining the internal architecture of a component, and defining the data handling for a component.
A. I am considered an expert on this. I have successfully done this multiple times without assistance or error. I train or supervise others on this activity. Others come to me when they have questions or need assistance with this.
B. I have successfully done this without assistance and with few errors, but I do not train or supervise others on this activity.
C. I am proficient at this. I have successfully done this on my own, but I occasionally require assistance for some types of problems encountered when doing this and/or occasionally make minor errors.
D. I have successfully done this with the assistance of others or specific instructions.
E. I am a novice. I have not yet done this or am learning.
Answer: A

13. Rate your level of proficiency in migrating, deploying, and maintaining an application, including creating a deployment plan, and analyzing the configuration of the production environment, performance monitoring data, and logs.
A. I am considered an expert on this. I have successfully done this multiple times without assistance or error. I train or supervise others on this activity. Others come to me when they have questions or need assistance with this.
B. I have successfully done this without assistance and with few errors, but I do not train or supervise others on this activity.
C. I am proficient at this. I have successfully done this on my own, but I occasionally require assistance for some types of problems encountered when doing this and/or occasionally make minor errors.
D. I have successfully done this with the assistance of others or specific instructions.
E. I am a novice. I have not yet done this or am learning.
Answer: A

14. How many years of experience do you have in developing enterprise applications by using any version of the Microsoft .NET Framework?
A. I have not done this yet.
B. Less than 6 months
C. 6 months- 1 year
D. 1- 2 years
E. 2- 3 years
F. More than 3 years
Answer: A

15. You create an application by using Microsoft Visual Studio .NET 2008 and the .NET Framework 3.5.
The application includes a component. The component will be referenced by the .NET and COM applications.
The component contains the following code segment.
public class Employee
{
public Employee(string name)
{
}
}
The .NET and COM applications must perform the following tasks:
Create objects of the Employee type.
use these objects to access the employee details.
You need to ensure that the .NET and COM applications can consume the managed component.
What should you do?
A. Change the Employee class to a generic class.
B. Change the constructor to a no-argument constructor.
C. Set the access modifier of the class to internal.
D. Set the access modifier of the constructor to protected.
Answer: B

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1. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET. The application connects to a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database.
You write the following code segment.
string query = "Select EmpNo, EmpName from dbo.Table_1;
select Name,Age from dbo.Table_2";
SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(query, connection);
SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader();
You need to ensure that the application reads all the rows returned by the code segment.
Which code segment should you use?
A. while (reader.NextResult())
{
Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}",reader[0], reader[1]));
reader.Read();
}
B. while (reader.Read())
{
Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}",reader[0], reader[1]));
reader.NextResult();
}
C. while (reader.Read())
{
Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}",reader[0], reader[1]));
}
reader.NextResult();
while (reader.Read())
{
Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}",reader[0], reader[1]));
}
D. while (reader.NextResult())
{
Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}",reader[0], reader[1]));
}
reader.Read();
while (reader.NextResult())
{
Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}",reader[0], reader[1]));
}
Answer: C

2. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET. The application connects to a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database.
The application throws an exception when the SQL Connection object is used.
You need to handle the exception.
Which code segment should you use?
A. try
{
if(null!=conn)
conn.Close();
// code for the query
}
catch (Exception ex)
{
// handle exception
}
finally
{
if(null==conn)
conn.Open();
}
B. try
{
conn.Close();
// code for the query
}
catch (Exception ex)
{
// handle exception
}
finally
{
if(null!=conn)
conn.Open();
}
C. try
{
conn.Open();
// code for the query
}
catch (Exception ex)
{
// handle exception
}
finally
{
if(null!=conn)
conn.Close();
}
D. try
{
conn.Open();
// code for the query
}
catch (Exception ex)
{
// handle exception
}
finally
{
if(null==conn)
conn.Close();
}
Answer: C

3. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET.
The application contains a TextBox control named txtProductID. The application will return a list of active products that have the ProductID field equal to the txtProductID.Text property.
You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 private DataSet GetProducts(SqlConnection cn) {
02 SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand();
03 cmd.Connection = cn;
04 SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd);
05 DataSet ds = new DataSet();
06
07 da.Fill(ds);
08 return ds;
09 }
You need to populate the DataSet object with product records while avoiding possible SQL injection attacks.
Which code segment should you insert at line 06?
A. cmd.CommandText = string.Format("sp_sqlexec ‘SELECT ProductID,
Name FROM Product WHERE ProductID={0} AND IsActive=1′", txtProductID.Text);
B. cmd.CommandText = string.Format("SELECT ProductID, Name FROM
Product WHERE ProductID={0} AND IsActive=1", txtProductID.Text);
cmd.Prepare();
C. cmd.CommandText = string.Format("SELECT ProductID, Name FROM
Product WHERE ProductID={0} AND IsActive=1", txtProductID.Text);
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.TableDirect;
D. cmd.CommandText = "SELECT ProductID, Name FROM Product WHERE
ProductID=@productID AND IsActive=1";
cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@productID", txtProductID.Text);
Answer: D

4. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET.
The application contains a DataSet object named OrderDS that has the Order and OrderDetail tables as shown in the following exhibit.
You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 private void GetOrders(SqlDataConnection cn) {
02 SqlCommand cmd = cn.CreateCommand();
03 cmd.CommandText = "Select * from [Order];
Select * from [OrderDetail];";
04 SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd);
05
06 }
You need to ensure that the Order and the OrderDetail tables are populated.
Which code segment should you insert at line 05?
A. da.Fill(OrderDS);
B. da.Fill(OrderDS.Order);
da.Fill(OrderDS.OrderDetail);
C. da.TableMappings.AddRange(new DataTableMapping[] {
new DataTableMapping("Table", "Order"),
new DataTableMapping("Table1", "OrderDetail")});
da.Fill(OrderDS);
D. DataTableMapping mapOrder = new DataTableMapping();
mapOrder.DataSetTable = "Order";
DataTableMapping mapOrderDetail = new DataTableMapping();
mapOrder.DataSetTable = "OrderDetail";
da.TableMappings.AddRange(new DataTableMapping[]
{ mapOrder, mapOrderDetail });
Da.Fill(OrderDS);
Answer: C

5. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET.
You need to ensure that the application can connect to any type of database.
What should you do?
A. Set the database driver name in the connection string of the application, and then create the connection object in the following manner.
DbConnection connection = new OdbcConnection(connectionString);
B. Set the database provider name in the connection string of the application, and then create the connection object in the following manner.
DbConnection connection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString);
C. Create the connection object in the following manner.
DbProviderFactory factory =
DbProviderFactories.GetFactory("System.Data.Odbc");
DbConnection connection = factory.CreateConnection();
D. Create the connection object in the following manner.
DbProviderFactory factory =
DbProviderFactories.GetFactory(databaseProviderName);
DbConnection connection = factory.CreateConnection();
Answer: D

6. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET.
The application contains a SqlDataAdapter object named daOrder. The SelectCommand property of the daOrder object is set.
You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 private void ModifyDataAdapter() {
02
03 }
You need to ensure that the daOrder object can also handle updates.
Which code segment should you insert at line 02?
A. SqlCommandBuilder cb = new SqlCommandBuilder(daOrder);
cb.RefreshSchema();
B. SqlCommandBuilder cb = new SqlCommandBuilder(daOrder);
cb.SetAllValues = true;
C. SqlCommandBuilder cb = new SqlCommandBuilder(daOrder);
daOrder.DeleteCommand = cb.GetDeleteCommand();
daOrder.InsertCommand = cb.GetInsertCommand();
daOrder.UpdateCommand = cb.GetUpdateCommand();
D. SqlCommandBuilder cb = new SqlCommandBuilder(daOrder);
cb.RefreshSchema();
cb.GetDeleteCommand();
cb.GetInsertCommand();
cb.GetUpdateCommand();
Answer: C

7. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET.
The application uses data from a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database table. A Web page of the application contains a GridView server control.
You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 private void LoadGrid()
02 {
03 using (SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand())
04 {
05 command.Connection = connection;
06 command.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM Customers";
07 connection.Open();
08
09 }
10 }
You need to retrieve the data from the database table and bind the data to the DataSource property of the GridView server control.
Which code segment should you insert at line 08?
A. SqlDataReader rdr = command.ExecuteReader();
connection.Close();
GridView1.DataSource = rdr;
GridView1.DataBind();
B. SqlDataReader rdr = command.ExecuteReader();
GridView1.DataSource = rdr.Read();
GridView1.DataBind();
connection.Close();
C. SqlDataReader rdr = command.ExecuteReader();
Object[] values = new Object[rdr.FieldCount];
GridView1.DataSource = rdr.GetValues(values);
GridView1.DataBind();
connection.Close();
D. DataTable dt = new DataTable();
using (SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader())
{
dt.Load(reader);
}
connection.Close();
GridView1.DataSource = dt;
GridView1.DataBind();
Answer: D

8. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET.
The application has a DataTable object named OrderDetailTable. The object has the following columns:
·ID
·OrderID
·ProductID
·Quantity
·LineTotal
The OrderDetailTable object is populated with data provided by a business partner. Some of the records contain a null value in the LineTotal field and 0 in the Quantity field.
You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 DataColumn col = new DataColumn("UnitPrice", typeof(decimal));
02
03 OrderDetailTable.Columns.Add(col);
You need to add a DataColumn named UnitPrice to the OrderDetailTable object.
Which line of code should you insert at line 02?
A. col.Expression = "LineTotal/Quantity";
B. col.Expression = "LineTotal/ISNULL(Quantity, 1)";
C. col.Expression = "LineTotal.Value/ISNULL(Quantity.Value,1)";
D. col.Expression = "iif(Quantity > 0, LineTotal/Quantity, 0)";
Answer: D

9. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET. The application connects to a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database.
The connection string of the application is defined in the following manner.
"Server=Prod;Database=WingtipToys;Integrated
Security=SSPI;Asynchronous Processing=true"
The application contains the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 protected void UpdateData(SqlCommand cmd) {
02 cmd.Connection.Open();
03
04 lblResult.Text = "Updating …";
05 }
The cmd object takes a long time to execute.
You need to ensure that the application continues to execute while cmd is executing.
What should you do?
A. Insert the following code segment at line 03.
cmd.BeginExecuteNonQuery(new AsyncCallback(UpdateComplete), cmd);
Add the following code segment.
private void UpdateComplete (IAsyncResult ar) {
int count = (int)ar.AsyncState;
LogResults(count);
}
B. Insert the following code segment at line 03.
cmd.BeginExecuteNonQuery(new AsyncCallback(UpdateComplete), cmd);
Add the following code segment.
private void UpdateComplete (IAsyncResult ar) {
SqlCommand cmd = (SqlCommand)ar.AsyncState;
int count = cmd.EndExecuteNonQuery(ar);
LogResults(count);
}
C. Insert the following code segment at line 03.
cmd.StatementCompleted += new
StatementCompletedEventHandler(UpdateComplete);
cmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
Add the following code segment.
private void UpdateComplete (object sender, StatementCompletedEventArgs e) {
int count = e.RecordCount;
LogResults(count);
}
D. Insert the following code segment at line 03.
SqlNotificationRequest notification = new
SqlNotificationRequest("UpdateComplete", "", 10000);
cmd.Notification = notification;
cmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
Add the following code segment.
private void UpdateComplete(SqlNotificationRequest notice) {
int count = int.Parse(notice.UserData);
LogResults(count);
}
Answer: B

10. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 5 and Microsoft ADO.NET. The application connects to a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database.
You need to separate the security-related exceptions from the other exceptions for database operations at run time.
Which code segment should you use?
A. catch (System.Security.SecurityException ex)
{
//Handle all database security related exceptions.
}
B. catch (System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException ex)
{
for (int i = 0; i < ex.Errors.Count; i++){
if (ex.Errors[i].Class.ToString() == "14") {
//Handle all database security related exceptions.
}
else{
//Handle other exceptions
}
}
}
C. catch (System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException ex)
{
for (int i = 0; i < ex.Errors.Count; i++){
if (ex.Errors[i].Number == 14){
//Handle all database security related exceptions.
}
else{
//Handle other exceptions
}
}
}
D. catch (System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException ex)
{
for (int i = 0; i < ex.Errors.Count; i++){
if (ex.Errors[i].Message.Contains("Security")){
//Handle all database security related exceptions.
}
else{
//Handle other exceptions
}
}
}
Answer: B

11. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET. The application connects to a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database.
The application analyzes large amounts of transaction data that are stored in a different database.
You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 using (SqlConnection connection = new
SqlConnection(sourceConnectionString))
02 using (SqlConnection connection2 = new
SqlConnection(destinationConnectionString))
03 using (SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand())
04 {
05 connection.Open();
06 connection2.Open();
07 using (SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader())
08 {
09 using (SqlBulkCopy bulkCopy = new
SqlBulkCopy(connection2))
10 {
11
12 }
13 }
14 }
You need to copy the transaction data to the database of the application.
Which code segment should you insert at line 11?
A. reader.Read()
bulkCopy.WriteToServer(reader);
B. bulkCopy.DestinationTableName = "Transactions";
bulkCopy.WriteToServer(reader);
C. bulkCopy.DestinationTableName = "Transactions";
bulkCopy.SqlRowsCopied += new
SqlRowsCopiedEventHandler(bulkCopy_SqlRowsCopied);
D. while (reader.Read())
{
bulkCopy.WriteToServer(reader);
}
Answer: B

12. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET.
The application contains a DataSet object named orderDS. The object contains a table named Order as shown in the following exhibit.
The application uses a SqlDataAdapter object named daOrder to populate the Order table.
You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 private void FillOrderTable(int pageIndex) {
02 int pageSize = 5;
03
04 }
You need to fill the Order table with the next set of 5 records for each increase in the pageIndex value.
Which code segment should you insert at line 03?
A. string sql = "SELECT SalesOrderID, CustomerID, OrderDate FROM
Sales.SalesOrderHeader";
daOrder.SelectCommand.CommandText = sql;
daOrder.Fill(orderDS, pageIndex, pageSize, "Order");
B. int startRecord = (pageIndex – 1) * pageSize;
string sql = "SELECT SalesOrderID, CustomerID, OrderDate FROM
Sales.SalesOrderHeader";
daOrder.SelectCommand.CommandText = sql;
daOrder.Fill(orderDS, startRecord, pageSize, "Order");
C. string sql = string.Format("SELECT TOP {0} SalesOrderID,
customerID,
orderDate FROM Sales.SalesOrderHeader WHERE SalesOrderID > {1}",
pageSize, pageIndex);
daOrder.SelectCommand.CommandText = sql;
daOrder.Fill(orderDS, "Order");
D. int startRecord = (pageIndex – 1) * pageSize;
string sql = string.Format("SELECT TOP {0} SalesOrderID, CustomerID,
orderDate FROM Sales.SalesOrderHeader WHERE SalesOrderID > {1}",
pageSize, startRecord);
daOrder.SelectCommand.CommandText = sql;
daOrder.Fill(orderDS, "Order");
Answer: B

13. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET. The application connects to a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database.
You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 using (SqlConnection connection = new
SqlConnection(connectionString)) {
02 SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection);
03 connection.Open();
04
05 while (sdrdr.Read()){
06 // use the data in the reader
07 }
08 }
You need to ensure that the memory is used efficiently when retrieving BLOBs from the database.
Which code segment should you insert at line 04?
A. SqlDataReader sdrdr =
cmd.ExecuteReader();
B. SqlDataReader sdrdr =
cmd.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.Default);
C. SqlDataReader sdrdr =
cmd.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.SchemaOnly);
D. SqlDataReader sdrdr =
cmd.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.SequentialAccess);
Answer: D

14. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET. The application connects to a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database.
You write the following code segment.
string queryString = "Select Name, Age from dbo.Table_1";
SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString,
(SqlConnection)connection));
You need to get the value that is contained in the first column of the first row of the result set returned by the query.
Which code segment should you use?
A. var value = command.ExecuteScalar();
string requiredValue = value.ToString();
B. var value = command.ExecuteNonQuery();
string requiredValue = value.ToString();
C. var value = command.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.SingleRow);
string requiredValue = value[0].ToString();
D. var value = command.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.SingleRow);
string requiredValue = value[1].ToString();
Answer: A

15. You create an application by using the Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 and Microsoft ADO.NET. The application uses Microsoft SQL Server 2005.
You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 String myConnString = "User
02 ID=<username>;password=<strong password>;Initial
03 Catalog=pubs;Data Source=myServer";
04 SqlConnection myConnection = new
05 SqlConnection(myConnString);
06 SqlCommand myCommand = new SqlCommand();
07 DbDataReader myReader;
08 myCommand.CommandType =
09 commandType.Text;
10 myCommand.Connection = myConnection;
11 myCommand.CommandText = "Select * from Table1;
Select * from Table2;";
12 int RecordCount = 0;
13 try
14 {
15 myConnection.Open();
16
17 }
18 catch (Exception ex)
19 {
20 }
21 finally
22 {
23 myConnection.Close();
24 }
You need to compute the total number of records processed by the Select queries in the RecordCount variable.
Which code segment should you insert at line 16?
A. myReader = myCommand.ExecuteReader();
RecordCount = myReader.RecordsAffected;
B. while (myReader.Read())
{
//Write logic to process data for the first result.
}
RecordCount = myReader.RecordsAffected;
C. while (myReader.HasRows)
{
while (myReader.Read())
{
//Write logic to process data for the second result.
RecordCount = RecordCount + 1;
myReader.NextResult();
}
}
D. while (myReader.HasRows)
{
while (myReader.Read())
{
//Write logic to process data for the second result.
RecordCount = RecordCount + 1;
}
myReader.NextResult();
}
Answer: D

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1. You create Web-based client applications. You are creating a class named Product. The Product class will be used by a Web-based application to retrieve and modify product information.
When you create an instance of the Product class, you retrieve the current information from the Products table. The Product class contains a static member named CreateNewProduct. The CreateNewProduct method is used to add a new product to the database and return the primary key. The Products table contains the following fields:
ProductID (primary key)
ProductName
Description
CategoryID
CurrentPrice
You need to create the constructor for the Product class.
Which code segment should you use?
A. public Product(int ProductID, string ProductName, string Description, int CategoryID, decimal CurrentPrice){
…
}
B. public Product(int ProductID, string ProductName)?{
…
}
C. public Product()?{
…
}
D. public Product(int ProductID)?{
…
}
Answer: D

2. You create Web-based applications. You create a loan application form.
The loan application form is used to calculate the monthly payment of loans. The monthly payment is based on the loan amount, rate, and number of months. The form contains four text boxes and a button. There are no other controls in the form. The application event handler has the following lines of code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 protected void GetPayment(object sender, EventArgs e) {
02 try {
03 decimal rate = decimal.Parse(txtRate.Text);
04 decimal loanAmount = decimal.Parse(txtLoan.Text);
05 int period = int.Parse(txtPeriod.Text);
06 decimal payment = CalcPayment(rate, loanAmount, period);
07 txtPayment.Text = payment.ToString("C");
08 }
09 catch (OverflowException ex) {
10 …
11 }
12 catch (InvalidCastException ex) {
13 …
14 }
15 catch (Exception ex) {
16 …
17 }
18 }
You must prevent exceptions whenever possible to meet the application requirements.
You need to evaluate the current exception handling mechanism.
What should you conclude?
A. The current exception handling mechanism meets the requirements. Nothing needs to be changed.
B. The current exception handling mechanism does not meet the requirements. A required field validator and a range validator control must be added to validate each text box before the button is clicked.
C. The current exception handling mechanism does not meet the requirements. A required field validator control must be added to validate each text box before the button is clicked.
D. The current exception handling mechanism does not meet the requirements. A regular expression validator control must be added to validate each text box before the button is clicked.
Answer: B

3. You create Web-based client applications. You are reviewing a Web application page that populates the list of all employees for your company.
The following code segment loads the list of employees from a database.
private static List<CEmployee> LoadEmployeesFromDatabase() {?
DbProviderFactory factory =?
DbProviderFactories.GetFactory("System.Data.SqlClient");
List<CEmployee> lstEmployees = null;
// Extract the connection string from configuration data
ConnectionStringSettings connString =
ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["EmployeeStore"];
// Create the connection and open it
DbConnection conn = factory.CreateConnection();
conn.ConnectionString = connString.ConnectionString;
conn.Open();
// Get the employees. The connection to the database is?
// given as parameter
lstEmployees = GetEmployees(conn);
// Close the connection to the employee data store
Conn.Close();
return lstEmployees;
}
You analyze the code segment. You find that the database connection fails to close properly when the GetEmployees method throws an exception.
You need to recommend a change in the code segment to ensure that every possible code path closes the database connection.
Which code segment should you recommend?
A. // Create the connection and open it
using (DbConnection conn = factory.CreateConnection())
{
conn.ConnectionString = connString.ConnectionString;
conn.Open();
// Get the employees. The connection to the database
// is given as parameter
lstEmployees = GetEmployees(conn);
}
B. // Create the connection and open it
DbConnection conn = factory.CreateConnection();
conn.ConnectionString = connString.ConnectionString;
conn.Open();
// Get the employees. The connection to the database is
// given as parameter
lstEmployees = GetEmployees(conn);
if (lstEmployees == null) {
conn.Dispose();
}
else {
conn.Close();
}
C. HandleCollector coll =new HandleCollector("Connections", 0, 5);
// Create the connection and open it
DbConnection conn = factory.CreateConnection();
conn.ConnectionString = connString.ConnectionString;
conn.Open();
coll.Add();
// Get the employees. The connection to the database is
// given as parameter
lstEmployees = GetEmployees(conn);
// Close the connection to the employee data store
Conn.Close();
Coll.Remove();
D. // Create the connection and open it
using (IDisposable factory = DbProviderFactories.GetFactory("System.Data.SqlClient") as IDisposable)
{
DbConnection conn = factory.CreateConnection();
conn.ConnectionString = connString.ConnectionString;
conn.Open();
// Get the employees. The connection to the database
// is given as parameter
lstEmployees = GetEmployees(conn);
}
Answer: A

4. You create Web-based applications. You are creating an Internet banking application.
You write the following lines of code to represent a method in your application. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 public void Transfer(decimal amount, BankAccount account)
02 {
03 if (!(amount > 0))
04 throw new Exception("Invalid deposit amount!");
05 else
06 {
07 this.Withdraw(amount);
08 account.Deposit(amount);
09 }
10 }
You use the Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 test feature to automatically generate the following unit test. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 [TestMethod()]
02 public void TransferTest()
03 {
05 BankAccount target = new BankAccount();
06 BankAccount transferTo = new BankAccount();
07 target.Deposit(500);
08 target.Transfer(100,transferTo);
09 Assert.Inconclusive("A method that does not return a value cannot be verified.");
10 }
You need to change the test method to return a conclusive result.
Which line of code should replace the code on line 09 of the unit test?
A. Assert.AreEqual (400M, target.Balance);
B. Assert.IsTrue (target.Balance != 400M);
C. Debug.Assert (target.Balance == 400M,passed);
D. Debug.Assert (target.Balance == 400M,failed);
Answer: A

5. You create components for Web-based client applications. You are creating a BankAccount class.
The BankAccount class contains an AccountNumber property and a CreateAccount method. The CreateAccount method is used to create a new account. The method generates a unique random value for the actNumber field.
You need to ensure that the BankAccount class is extendable, and that it serves as the base class for other derived classes. You also need to ensure that each derived class can have its own guidelines to generate account numbers in the CreateAccount method.
Which code segment should you use?
A. public class BankAccount {
protected long actNumber;
public long AccountNumber {
get {
return actNumber;
}
}
public virtual BankAccount CreateAccount() {
…
}
}
B. public class BankAccount {
private long actNumber;
public long AccountNumber {
get {
return actNumber;
}
}
public virtual BankAccount CreateAccount() {
…
}
}
C. public class BankAccount {
protected long actNumber;
public long AccountNumber {
get {
return actNumber;
}
}
public BankAccount CreateAccount() {
…
}
}
D. public class BankAccount {
private long actNumber;
public long AccountNumber {
get {
return actNumber;
}
}
public BankAccount CreateAccount() {
…
}
}
Answer: A

6. Question
You create Web-based client applications.
?
You are evaluating the design of an e-commerce Web site. The Web site processes credit card information. The Web site has a shopping cart and expects a high volume of traffic, especially during peak shopping times.
?
The design specifications for the application must meet the following criteria:
?
The application will be hosted on a Web farm.
The application will use SSL during the checkout process.
Shopping cart information will be stored in InProc session variables.
?
You need to evaluate the design of the application and recommend whether it is technically feasible and complete.
?
What should you conclude?
A. The design is technically feasible, but it is not complete. The application must be configured to use cookieless sessions. Each server on the farm must use a unique certificate.
B. The design is technically feasible and complete.
C. The design is technically feasible, but it is not complete. The servers must have their affinity set to a single host (sticky sessions).
D. The design is not technically feasible. The application cannot be hosted on a Web farm.
Answer: C

7. Question
You create Web-based client applications. You are designing a new Web site for your company. You need to evaluate the design concept for the main page, default.aspx.
?
The default.aspx page contains static information, except for one data grid that displays information about the companys products. The data grid will retrieve the data from a component. The component will retrieve the data from a stored procedure. The page has the appropriate permissions to the Microsoft SQL Server database.
?
The application design must achieve the following goals without altering the data component:
?
The default.aspx page must load quickly.
The default.aspx page must contain the latest data from the database.
?
You decide to use a sqlCacheDependency attribute to ensure that the default.aspx page always displays the latest data in the grid.
?
You need to ascertain whether the use of the sqlCacheDependency attribute meets the requirements of this application.
?
Which rationale should you choose?
A. The use of the sqlCacheDependency attribute is not feasible. The sqlCacheDependency attribute must be used in the component and not on the page.
B. The use of the sqlCacheDependency attribute is not feasible. The sqlCacheDependency attribute cannot be used with a stored procedure.
C. The use of the sqlCacheDependency attribute is feasible. The sqlCacheDependency attribute can be used by including a sqlDependency attribute in the @OutputCache directive of the page.
D. The use of the sqlCacheDependency attribute is feasible. The sqlCacheDependency attribute can be linked to the data component that is used on the page.
Answer: C

8. You create Web-based client applications. You create a Web site that will be used to simulate different types of loans. You are writing a method to calculate the payment on a simple loan.
You write the following lines of code for the method. (Comments are included for reference only.)
public static decimal Payment(decimal loanAmount, int period, decimal rate) {
if (!(loanAmount > 0)||!(period > 1)||!(rate > 0)) { // Line A
throw new Exception("Invalid input!"); // Line B
} else {
return 0M; // Line C: return a calculated payment
}
}
public static decimal CheckBalance(ulong accountID) {
return 0M; // Line D: return calculated balance
}
You write the following code for the unit test.
[TestMethod()]
public void PaymentTest() {
decimal payment = Loan.Payment(100000,360,10); // Line E
Assert.AreEqual(payment, 877.57M); // Line F
}
You enable coverage testing for this unit test.
You need to identify the coverage of your test.
Which lines are covered by the test?
A. Lines commented A, B, and C
B. Lines commented A and C
C. Lines commented A, B, C, D, E, and F
D. Lines commented A, B, C, E, and F
Answer: B

9. You create Web-based client applications. You create a component named Orders for a company named Northwind Traders.
This component is used to retrieve and update data in the Orders table of the companys database. The schema of the Orders table is as shown in the following Exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
The Orders component permits the client application to perform the following tasks:
Retrieve all orders for a Customer.
Retrieve all orders for an Employee.
Retrieve all orders that are shipped.
An instance of the Order class represents a single order that is identified by the OrderID parameter. An instance of the Order class permits the client application to perform the following tasks:
Ascertain whether an order is shipped.
Modify the RequiredDate field of the Order table for an existing order.
Delete an order.
You need to create the design for the component.
What should you do?
To answer, drag the appropriate members to the correct locations in the member type column.
Members
public static Order[] GetOrdersForCustomer(int CustomerID)
public bool OrderHasShipped(int EmployeeID)
public bool DeleteOrder(int EmployeeID)
public Order GetOrdersForCustomer(int EmployeeID)
public bool UpdateOrderDate(dateTime NewRequiredDate)
public Order GetOrdersForEmployee(int CustomerID)
public static Order[] UnshippedOrders ()
public Order UnshippedOrders(int EmployeeID)
public bool UpdateOrderDate(int EmployeeID, dateTime NewRequiredDate)
public bool DeleteOrder()
public bool OrderHasShipped
public static Order[] GetOrdersForEmployee(int EmployeeID)
public Orders(int OrderID)
Answer:

10. You create Web-based client applications. You are creating an application that must access different databases depending on whether the application is in demonstration, production, or test mode. The mode is stored in an environment variable.
?
The configuration file contains the following settings.
?
<connectionStrings>
<add name = "ProdDB" connectionString = "Data Source = server; Initial Catalog = ProdDatabase; Integrated_Security = true" providerName = "System.Data.SqlClient" />
<add name = "DemoDB" connectionString = "Data Source = server; Initial Catalog = DemoDatabase; Integrated_Security = true" providerName = "System.Data.SqlClient" />
<add name = "TestDB" connectionString = "Data Source = server; Initial Catalog = TestDatabase; Integrated_Security = true"
providerName = "System.Data.SqlClient" />
</connectionStrings>
?
You need to ensure that changing the mode will not require you to change the configuration file.
?
Which code segment should you use?
A. public string GetConnectionString() {
#if PROD
?return WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ProdDB"].
ConnectionString;
#elseif DEMO
?return WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DemoDB"].
ConnectionString;
#else
?return WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["TestDB"].
ConnectionString;
#endif
}
B. public string GetConnectionString() {
return WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[
Environment.GetEnvironmentVariable("WebAppModeDB")].
ConnectionString;
}
C. public string GetConnectionString() {
return ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings[
Environment.GetEnvironmentVariable("WebAppModeDB")];
}
D. public string GetConnectionString() {
#if PROD
? return ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["ProdDB"];
#elseif DEMO
return ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["DemoDB"];
#else
return ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["TestDB"];
#endif
}
E. public string GetConnectionString() {
return WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Database"].
ConnectionString;
}
Answer: B

11. You create Web-based client applications. You are creating a class library that will be used by an e-commerce Web-based application. The library has an abstract class that is named Product. The Product class serves as a base class for the other classes and provides a default ProductID property.
Each class other than the base class represents a type of product that is sold by your company. There is a ProductID property and a GetProductDetails procedure for each product type.
You need to ensure that the application meets the following requirements:
The shopping cart in your Web-based application processes all product types in the same manner.
Each class retrieves its data from a different source.
The GetProductDetails procedure retrieves the data from the appropriate source for the product type.
What should you include in the Product class?
A. an abstract ProductID property and a virtual GetProductDetails procedure
B. a virtual ProductID property and a virtual GetProductDetails procedure
C. a virtual ProductID property and an abstract GetProductDetails procedure
D. an abstract ProductID property and an abstract GetProductDetails procedure
Answer: C

12. You create Web-based client applications. You are reviewing a Web application page that populates a list of all employees of your company.
You analyze code and find that the Web application page does not prevent exceptions from traveling to the browser.
You need to ensure that the Web application page intercepts exceptions and presents an error message to the browser.
What change should you suggest?
A. Add the following code segment to the Web.config file.
<system.web>
<compilation debug="true"/>
</system.web>
B. Add the following code segment to the page.
protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {
Response.Redirect("error.aspx");
}
C. Add the following code segment to the Web.config file.
<system.web>
<customErrors mode="Off"/>
</system.web>
D. Change the load event handler to the following code segment.
protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) {
try {
LoadEmployees();
}
Catch {
Response.Redirect("error.aspx");
}
}
Answer: B

13. Question
You create Web-based client applications. You are designing an extranet site for a company of trading partners.
?
You decide to use the following technologies:
?
Windows Authentication
XML to transfer data between the company and the traders
?
Before implementation, these technologies must be validated. You propose the following approach to perform the validation:
?
Coordinate a test set of Active Directory accounts for one trading partner.
Provide the trading partner access to a test site that has logon facility.
Distribute the XML schema that permits the partner to access data.
?
You need to evaluate whether the approach validates the proposed technology successfully.
?
What should you conclude?
A. The approach validates the use of the proposed technology for the application.
B. The approach does not validate the use of the proposed technology for the application. The company and the partner need to create test applications. The test applications need to read data in the proposed XML schema to establish the validation.
C. The approach does not validate the use of the proposed technology for the application. The company and the partner need to coordinate their Active Directory tree into a shared Active Directory forest.
D. The approach does not validate the use of the proposed technology for the application. You must either use an existing publicly documented XML schema or register the shared XML schema by using an authentication site.
Answer: B

14. You create Web-based applications. You are creating an Internet banking application. The application will be used by bank account holders.
You are creating a method to withdraw money from an account. The method must change the account balance according to one of the following rules:
If the amount that is being withdrawn is less than or equal to the account balance, then subtract the amount from the balance.
If the amount that is being withdrawn is greater than the account balance by up to 500 dollars, then subtract the amount and a 35-dollar fee from the balance.
If the amount that is being withdrawn is greater than the account balance by more than 500 dollars, then generate an error.
You are translating the specification given here into pseudo code. You start by writing the following code.
Method
public void Withdraw
Input parameters
decimal amount
Class field
decimal balance
Pseudo code
//your pseudo code
You need to insert the correct pseudo code.
Which code segment should you insert?
A. If amount < balance then balance – = amount
If amount < balance + 500 then balance = balance – (amount + 35)
If amount > balance + 500 then throw exception
B. If amount <= balance then balance – = amount
If amount <= balance + 500 then balance = balance – (amount + 35)
If amount > balance + 500 then throw exception
C. If amount < balance then balance – = amount
Else If amount < balance + 500 then balance = balance – (amount + 35)
Else throw exception
D. If amount <= balance then balance – = amount
Else If amount <= balance + 500 then balance = balance – (amount + 35)
Else throw exception
Answer: D

15. You create Web-based client applications. You create a class library that is named Fabrikam.dll. Ten applications will use Fabrikam.dll.
Fabrikam.dll contains two classes that are named Order and OrderDetail. The class library must meet the following requirements:
Both the classes in Fabrikam.dll are available to client applications of Fabrikam.dll.
Each instance of the OrderDetail class is associated with an instance of the Order class.
Code segments in client applications do not instantiate the OrderDetail class.
The OrderDetail class contains no static members.
You need to design the interface for the OrderDetail class.
Which code segment should you choose?
A. public sealed class OrderDetail?{
internal OrderDetail(){
…
}
}
B. internal sealed class OrderDetail?{
internal OrderDetail() {
…
}
}
C. public sealed class OrderDetail?{
public OrderDetail() {
…
}
}
D. public sealed class OrderDetail?{
private OrderDetail() {
…
}
}
Answer: A

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1. As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. GeneratedUIDs provide for user identification in which TWO contexts?
A. file ACLs
B. file ownership
C. password policies
D. group membership
Answer: AD

2. As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. Please point out which type of entry in an LDAP schema defines the record type(s) that the LDAP directory supports?
A. OID base
B. object class
C. syntax definition
D. attribute definition
Answer: B

3. A Mac OS X v10.5 computer is bound to an Active Directory server using the Active Directory plug-in in Directory Access. Using the default configuration of the plug-in, what is the Mac OS X user ID number for a user account provided by the Active Directory server?
A. The user ID number is always set to 500.
B. The user ID number is the value stored in the user account??s UID attribute.
C. The user ID number is generated based on the user account??s Globally Unique ID (GUID).
D. The user ID number is a randomly generated value that does not conflict with any user IDs used by the local user records.
Answer: C

4. As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You want a Mac OS X v10.5 computer to mount a network volume dynamically over AFP when users log in to the computer. Which TWO attributes must be defined in the mount record?
A. You should define the attribute Export
B. You should define the attribute MountDir
C. You should define the attribute VFSOpts
D. You should define the attribute VFSType
Answer: CD

5. As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You are configuring a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to search multiple directory domains. How to specify the order in which the server searches the directories when authenticating users?
A. You should define a custom search path in the Authentication pane of Directory Utility.
B. You should run slapconfig -setauthmechanisms and specify the directory domain search order.
C. You should modify the mapping for the AuthenticationAuthority attribute in the Mappings pane of Directory Utility.
D. You should configure the computer account and enter the authentication search path in the Advanced pane of Workgroup Manager.
Answer: A

6. A search base for an LDAP request describes the directory services data types that correspond to the LDAP entry being searched
A. TRUE
B. FALS
Answer: B

7. In Mac OS X v10.5, which command should you enter in Terminal to send a HUP signal to a process?
A. sig
B. kill
C. stop
D. signal
Answer: B

8. In a default installation of Mac OS X v10.5, which command should you enter in Terminal to search for a user named "kim" in all directory domains in your search path?
A. dscl localhost read /Search/Users/kim
B. dscl localhost read /Default/Users/kim
C. dscl localhost read /127.0.0.1/Users/kim
D. dscl localhost read /Local/Default/Users/kim
Answer: A

9. As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You want to add a user to an Open Directory master. What should you do to achieve it without stopping the DirectoryService process to avoid data corruption?
A. You should use command-line tool dscl
B. You should use command-line tool slapadd
C. You should use command-line tool slapconfig
D. You should use command-line tool slappasswd
Answer: A

10. A search base for an LDAP request describes the network path to the LDAP server that the request will search
A. TRUE
B. FALS
Answer: B

11. A search base for an LDAP request describes the location in the LDAP hierarchy where the search will begin.
A. TRUE
B. FALS
Answer: A

12. Which attribute in a Mac OS X network user account stores the network location of the user’s home folder?
A. The UserHome attribute in the mount record
B. The VFSLinkDir attribute in the mount record
C. The ExportDirectory attribute in the computer record
D. The HomeDirectory attribute in the user account record
Answer: D

13. As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple Company. Your company has a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. There is one Open Directory master with many replicas. But it fails to work fine. How should you promote one of the replicas to master and have all the other replicas look to the new master?
A. You should use Server Admin to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then change all of the remaining Open Directory replicas to standalone servers, and back to replicas.
B. You should use dsconfigldap to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then use Server Admin to change all of the remaining Open Directory replicas to standalone servers, and back to replicas.
C. You should use Server Admin to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then change the address of the Open Directory master on all of the remaining replicas, without changing the role of the replicas.
D. You should use dscl to change one of the Open Directory replicas to a master, and then use serveradmin to change the address of the Open Directory master on all of the replicas, without changing the role of the replicas.
Answer: A

14. A search base for an LDAP request describes the client application making the search request
A. TRUE
B. FALS
Answer: B

15. Which statement describes a standard attribute in Mac OS X v10.5 directory services?
A. An attribute defined by RFC2307
B. An attribute required by Mac OS X v10.5 to publish services with Bonjour
C. An attribute required by Open Directory to support network logins in Mac OS X v10.5
D. An attribute in an Open Directory record that includes default mappings to one or more native attributes in a local or connected directory
Answer: D

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1. You work for XYZ organization and are setting up a new Linux box. The organization wants the user’s data on the system to be safe even in the event of a crash of the root filesystem.
Which step do you think would help the administrator achieve the organization’s objective?
A. Have /opt directory on its own filesystem with the filesystem being ext3.
B. Have /home directory on its own filesystem with the filesystem being ext3.
C. Have /var directory on its own filesystem and all other filesystems under / (root filesystem).
D. Have /usr directory on its own filesystem and all other filesystems under / (root filesystem).
Answer: B

2. You have bound your system to the Network Information Service (NIS) domain ORACLE and all client-side configurations are done. The users report a problem that they are not able to log in through NIS accounts, whereas local users are successfully authenticated, after the system reboots.
As a Linux administrator, you executed the nisdomainname command and you get the output "(none)", and no traces of yp are found in the /var/log/messages file.
What would you do to resolve this error? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Re-create the NIS domain on the server that runs the NIS domain ORACLE.
B. Restart the ypserv service on the server that runs the NIS domain ORACLE.
C. Restart the network service on the server that runs the NIS domain ORACLE.
D. Use the chkconfig command to set the ypbind service to be on at the desired runlevels.
E. Use the ntsysv command to select the ypbind service to be automatically started with the desired runlevels.
Answer: DE

3. You want to install the ieee80211 module on your Linux system. While building the module, you receive the following error:
Make [2]: *** [ieee 80211-1.2.17/ieee80211_module.o] Error 1
Make [1]: *** [_module_/ieee80211-1.2.17] Error 2
Make [1]: Leaving directory ‘/usr/src/kernels/2.6.9-42.0.0.0.1.EL-i686′
Make: *** [modules] Error 2
What do you infer from this error?
A. The ieee80211 module conflicts with the current kernel version.
B. The dependency modules for ieee80211 are not installed on the system.
C. The ieee80211 module given is not supported by the machine architecture.
D. The kernel source package, which must be installed to compile external device drivers, is not installed on the system.
Answer: D

4. You have a /dev/md1 redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array on your system as shown below:
[root@server1 ~]# cat /proc/mdstat
Personalities : [raid 5]
md1 : active raid5 sdd1[3] sdc1[1] sdb1[0]
594176 blocks level 5, 64k chunk, algorithm 2 [3/2] [UU_]
unused devices:
The /dev/md1 RAID array is mounted on /data. You issued the command:
mdadm –fail /dev/md1 /dev/sdc1 /dev/sdb1
Which statements are true about the RAID array after you issue this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The kernel would report a Buffer I/O error on the RAID device /dev/md1.
B. The RAID array would be destroyed but the data could be recovered from the RAID disks.
C. The RAID array would be completely destroyed including the super block of the file system.
D. The RAID array could be reconstructed using new RAID partitions that synchronize with the /dev/sdd1 disk partition.
Answer: AC

5. You have the default syslogd configuration in your system. You plugged in a USB keydrive into the system.
Which command would help you to find the bus and the device number of the keydrive?
A. lsusb
B. lsmod
C. insmod
D. cat /proc/self/mounts
Answer: A

6. You have trouble in booting the Linux system and want to troubleshoot it. To find the cause, you want to make the kernel start the bash program in place of init.
What would you do to achieve this objective? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Pass S as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
B. Pass 1 as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
C. Pass init=/bin/bash as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
D. Pass INIT=/sbin/bash as the kernel parameter to the grub menu.
Answer: C

7. While importing user accounts in bulk along with passwords using the newusers command, you noticed that user passwords are saved in the /etc/shadow file in the crypt format.
How would you enable the newusers command to use the preferred MD5 format when writing passwords to the /etc/shadow file?
A. Add the MD5_ENAB=yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
B. Add the MD5_CRYPT yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
C. Add the MD5_CRYPT_ENAB yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
D. Add the MD5_CRYPT_ENAB yes line to the /etc/security/limits.conf file.
Answer: C

8. You are installing Oracle Enterprise Linux on a machine and are at the stage of swap filesystem creation. You want to ensure that swap contains twice the amount of RAM available in the system but do not know the total available memory.
You can use the free command but do not have a prompt to execute the command. Which key combination would take you to a command prompt?
A. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F2]
B. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F3]
C. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F4]
D. [Ctrl]+[Alt]+[F1]
Answer: A

9. The user smith executed the mozilla command, located in /usr/bin and owned by the root user.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. When mozilla needs to access certain files, the access would be determined by root’s permissions.
B. When started by smith, smith would own the initial mozilla program and all processes started by the initial process.
C. When mozilla needs to access certain files, the access would be determined by smith’s permissions and not by root’s.
D. When started by the user smith, the user smith would own the initial mozilla program and all processes started by the initial process would be owned by the system user associated with mozilla.
Answer: BC

10. You have written a udev rule as shown below:
KERNEL=="fb[0-9]*", NAME="fb/%n", SYMLINK+="%k", GROUP="video"
KERNEL=="fd[0-9]*", OWNER="john"
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The user john would own all the floppy devices.
B. The user john would own all the floppy and frame buffer devices.
C. The video group on the system would own all the floppy devices.
D. The video group on the system could be controlled by john only.
E. The video group on the system would own all the frame buffer devices.
Answer: AE

11. Which three statements are true about the Linux swap file system? (Choose three.)
A. The Linux user data cannot be written to the Linux swap space.
B. High-priority swap spaces would be exhausted only after exhausting swap spaces with equal priorities.
C. The Linux kernel code and data are not swappable and are never moved to swap file system from physical memory.
D. If too much space is allocated for swap, errant programs may run for an extended time and use up RAM and swap space.
E. When most of the system’s real memory is in use, and there is a need for more, some data would be moved into the swap file system to free real RAM memory for use by applications or for kernel use, such as for driver buffers, files, or network packets.
Answer: CDE

12. You want to make Oracle Enterprise Linux coexist with Microsoft Windows on your machine. You install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the default boot loader configuration and then install Microsoft WindowsXP. You reboot the system after installation and the system boots directly into the Windows operating system without showing the Grand Unified Boot Loader (GRUB) menu.
Which two steps could you have taken to avoid this situation? (Choose two.)
A. Install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the boot loader on MBR and then install Microsoft WindowsXP.
B. Install Microsoft WindowsXP first and then install Oracle Enterprise Linux with the boot loader on Master Boot Record (MBR).
C. Install Microsoft WindowsXP first and then install Oracle Enterprise Linux with the boot loader at the first sector of the /boot partition.
D. Install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the boot loader at the first sector of the /boot partition and then install Microsoft WindowsXP.
Answer: BC

13. As an administrator, you execute the following command to verify the integrity of mysql:
[root@server1]#rpm -Va mysql
S.5….T c /etc/my.cnf
What attributes of the /etc/my.cnf file have changed?
A. The permissions, user ownership, and file type have changed.
B. The permissions, group ownership, and file type have changed.
C. The user ownership, group ownership, and file type have changed.
D. The MD5 signature, file size, and modification time have changed.
Answer: D

14. You are logged in to server1 and want to allow remote connections to server1 through X Display Manager Control Protocol (XDMCP). You change the entry "Enable=false" to "Enable=true" in the "[xdmcp]" section of the gdm.conf configuration file.
To test the XDMCP configuration, you log in to station1 as smith and try to connect to server1 by using the following command:
[smith@station1]$ X -query server1.example.com :1
What is the result?
A. A connection to the gdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using direct XDMCP.
B. A connection to the xdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using direct XDMCP.
C. A connection to the gdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using indirect XDMCP.
D. A connection to the xdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using indirect XDMCP.
Answer: A

15. You are downloading a text file from the Web into a directory on an ext2 filesystem. The system crash after the data blocks are written onto the disk but before the metadata is written.
What is the status of the file after this transaction?
A. The file contents can be seen only using the cat command.
B. The file can be accessed using only the vi editor and does not require to be repaired using fsck.
C. The file cannot be accessed and must be repaired using fsck inorder to access the file contents.
D. The file contents can be accessed using only the emacs text editor and does not require to be repaired using fsck .
Answer: C