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Examsoon offers free demo for Deployment Professional 000-025 exam (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Implementation). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exam before you decide to get it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.

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1. Which client command launches file level VMware Consolidated Backup, eliminates VMware scripts for managing virtual machine snapshots, and automatically performs snapshot management on each virtual machine?
A. dsmc backvm
B. dsmc backup vm
C. dsmc backup vcb
D. dsmc launch backup vm
Answer: B

2. Which client option controls whether IBM Tivoli Storage Manager should create a differential snapshot when performing a snapdiff incremental backup?
A. diffshot
B. snapdiff
C. diffsnapshot
D. Incrsnapshot
Answer: C

3. In order to obtain an individual file level restore of a SnapMirror backup. what must be done?
A. Restore individual file from image backup.
B. Restore TOC, and then restore individual file.
C. Restore full SnapMirror Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
D. Restore IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
Answer: C

4. What is a limitation in restoring Active Directory (AD) objects?
A. A restored user object is disabled.
B. The AD objects are tombstone objects.
C. The AD database is extracted from a system state restore.
D. Missing attributes are copied from the backup into the reanimated or recreated object.
Answer: A

5. What best describes the default settings for the primary, copy, and active data storage pools processed during creation of the disaster recovery plan by using the prepare command?
A. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
B. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and no active data pools.
C. Process no primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
D. Process no primary pools, no copy pools, and no active data pools.
Answer: B

6. A customer has a production IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) environment and has run out of scratch tapes in a library named IBM3500. Which command will check the labeled and barcoded tapes into the library in Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. checkin libvolume IBM3500 search=bulk
B. label libvolume IBM3500 search=scratch labelsource=barcode
C. label libvolume IBM3500 search=bulk labelsource=barcode overwrite=yes
D. checkin libvolume IBM3500 search=bulk status=scratch checklabel=barcode
Answer: D

7. Which type of device class should be defined in order to use the SnapLock feature in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. DLT device class
B. LTO device class
C. FILE device class
D. DISK device class
Answer: C

8. A new storage pool is to be defined for providing off-site data protection by using an existing tape library at the off-site location and needs to provide optimized restore performance in the case of disaster. How should the storage pool be optimally configured?
A. an active-data copy pool that uses a tape device class
B. a copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
C. a copy pool that uses a tape device class with group collocation
D. an active-data copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
Answer: C

9. Which command is issued on IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server administrative command line to view the actual option settings?
A. query node
B. query state
C. query option
D. query config
Answer: C

10. In a server to server communication (or in enterprise configuration), after defining a target IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server on the Tivoli Storage Manager source server, how can an administrator test that the details entered are correct?
A. Check the Tivoli Storage Manager server activity log.
B. Ping the server from the operating system command line.
C. Use the Ping Server Tivoli Storage Manager command.
D. Open the Tivoli Storage Manager client on the Tivoli Storage Manager server, and see if the client can access the defined Tivoli Storage Manager server.
Answer: C

11. A customer requires a large file server backup in the least time possible by using a storage area network (SAN) environment. Which component should be installed on the file server in order to achieve this?
A. Tivoli Management Console
B. Integrated Solution Console
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager SAN-Free
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Network
Answer: D

12. Following the implementation of a LAN-free IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) solution, what can be done to test that the configuration is correct?
A. Query the backup archive client activity log.
B. Use the VALidate LAnfree command on the Tivoli Storage Manager server.
C. Use the VALidate LAnfree command from the Tivoli Storage Manager client.
D. Query the node from the Tivoli Storage Manager server and check the LAN-free option is set to Yes.
Answer: B

13. A customer wants to upgrade the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server environment including five Tivoli Storage Manager servers connected to a Tivoli Storage Manager Library Manager from Version 5. 5. 1 to Version 6. 1. In which order should the Tivoli Storage Manager servers be upgraded, including the Library Manager?
A. First upgrade the Library Manager, and then the Tivoli Storage Manager servers.
B. First upgrade the Tivoli Storage Manager servers, and then the Library Manager.
C. There is no order needed because of the new upgrade tool in Tivoli Storage Manager 6. 1.
D. First upgrade the Library Manager, and the other Tivoli Storage Manager servers will be upgraded automatically at the same time.
Answer: A

14. A customer has an Exchange server on a Windows 2003 and would like to perform daily backups. It is required that the Exchange server is always available. What is the best solution to achieve this?
A. Use NTbackup for Exchange Services.
B. Use only offline backups that uses Logical Volume Snapshot Agent.
C. Use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) for Mail for online backups daily.
D. Use Tivoli Storage Manager client without stopping the Exchange server.
Answer: C

15. What is the correct command and option that shows the current setting/value for the retention of activity log of an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager environment?
A. Command: query server, Option: ACTIVERetention 30 M
B. Command: query actlog, Option: ACTLOGretention 30 M
C. Command: query logretention, Option: LOGRetention 30 M
D. Command: query status, Option: Activity Log Retention: 30 M
Answer: D

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1. Which two are characteristics of an IPv6 multicast address? (Choose two)
A. First (most significant) octet is FF in hex
B. Starts with a prefix of FE80 to FEBF in hex
C. Starts with a prefix of FEC0 to FEFF in hex
D. Second octet contains a 4-bit multicast scope field
E. Last 64 bit contains the modified MAC address of the Ethernet interface
F. Is allocated from the unicast address space
Answer: AD

2. Which two statements regarding the IS-IS DIS election process are true? (Choose Two.)
A. A priority of 0 will prevent a router from becoming a DIS.
B. If the DIS becomes unavailable the backup DIS is promoted to DIS.
C. Adding a router with a higher priority than the current DIS will result in the new router becoming DIS.
D. Separate L1 and L2 election processes are held on a broadcast network.
E. L1 routers on a broadcast network only establish adjacencies with the DIS.
F. If there is a tie based on priority, the router whose attached interface has the lowest MAC address becomes the DIS.
Answer: CD

3. Which BGP Community option is used to prevent the advertisement of the BGP prefix to any other BGP peer?
A. additive
B. none
C. no-export
D. no-advertise
E. local-as
Answer: D

4. Which MQC-based output queueing method is designed to support multiple traffic classes including VoIP traffic, mission-critical traffic, bulk traffic, interactive traffic and default class traffic?
A. CBWFQ
B. CB-WRED
C. LLQ
D. Custom Queueing
E. WRR Queueing
Answer: C

5. Which two statements best describe the definition and configuration of Route-distinguisher as defined in RFC 2547 biz – AKA IP-VPN (MPLS-VPN)?
A. Route-Distinguisher is an 8 byte value used in creating unique VPNv4 address.
B. Route-Distinguisher is an 8 byte BGP attribute value used in influencing BGP best path algorithm.
C. Correct configuration to define Route-Distinguisher is:
ip vrf blue
rd 1:1
D. Correct configuration to define Route-Distinguisher is:
ip vrf blue
route-distinguisher 1:1
Answer: AC

6. With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
B. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Answer: C

7. With the DSCP value of "101110", what does the "11" in bits 1 and 2 indicate?
A. AF Class
B. Drop Probability
C. CS (Class Selector Value)
D. PHB (Per-Hop Behavior)
E. IP Precedence
F. Queue Depth
Answer: B

8. What bit should be set in the link state PDUs in an IS-IS level-1-2 router to indicate that they are a potential exit point out of the area?
A. ATT (Attached) bit
B. IS-Type bits
C. P (Partition) bit
D. Down bit
E. PN (Pseudonode) bit
F. ABR (Area Border Router) bit
Answer: A

9. The show ip ospf database external command displays information about which OSPF LSA type?
A. LSA type 1
B. LSA type 2
C. LSA type 3
D. LSA type 5
E. LSA type 7
F. LSA type 9
Answer: D

10. BGP Community can be set in IOS using which configuration?
A. The neighbor {ip-address} prefix-list command within the BGP routing process
B. The neighbor {ip-address} update-source command within the BGP routing process
C. The network command within the BGP routing process
D. The set command within a route-map
E. The send-community command within a route-map
Answer: D

11. What is used to provide read access to QoS configuration and statistics information on Cisco platforms that support Modular QoS CLI (MQC)?
A. Cisco NBAR Discovery
B. Cisco AutoQoS
C. Cisco Class-Based QoS MIB
D. Cisco SDM QoS Wizard
E. CDP
Answer: C

12. Refer to the exhibit. Your customer has enabled IPv6 on routers R1 and R2 and they can no longer reach R3. Which two steps should be taken to restore reachability to R3? (Choose Two.)
A. Enable wide metrics.
B. Enable OSPFv3 to support IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously.
C. Configure static routes to all unreachable networks and redistribute to IS-IS.
D. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R1 and R2.
E. Transition to IS-IS Multiple Topology Mode on R3.
F. Create an IPv6 tunnel from R2 to R3.
Answer: AD

13. BGP best route selection process is based on what?
A. lowest cost
B. highest bandwidth
C. lowest hop-count
D. path attributes
E. lowest delay
F. lowest delay and highest bandwidth
Answer: D

14. Which of the following statements is correct regarding PIM Sparse Mode operations?
A. It does not support all underlying unicast routing protocols like BGP.
B. It supports shared trees only assuming all hosts want the multicast traffic.
C. Receivers are "registered" with RP by their first-hop router.
D. Receivers are "joined" to the Shared Tree (rooted at the RP) by their local Designated Router (DR).
E. From the RP, traffic flows down a Source Tree to each receiver.
Answer: D

15. In Multicast VPN (MVPN) implementations, which two of the following statements are true regarding the Default MDT Group? (Choose two)
A. It is used for PIM control traffic.
B. It is optionally configured for a high bandwidth multicast source to reduce multicast traffic replication to uninterested PE routers.
C. Within the VRF configuration in the PE router, multiple Default MDT groups are configured so each VRF can support multiple multicast sources.
D. There is a reduced multicast state in the MPLS core P routers.
E. When multicast traffic exceeds a certain configured threshold, traffic from the Data MDT is switched to the Default MDT to conserve bandwidth.
Answer: AD

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1. Scenario: An administrator wants to leverage the following XenServer Enterprise Edition features:
1. XenMotion
2. Fast cloning
3. Thin provisioning
4. Shared virtual machine storage
5. Automatic virtual machine placement
Which two storage solutions must the administrator use to allow for all of these features? (Choose two.)
A. NetApp
B. Local disk
C. Fibre-Channel
D. Software iSCSI
E. Hardware iSCSI
F. NFS-based NAS
Answer: AF

2. What does XenServer Enterprise Edition use to convert storage devices into a storage pool?
A. Local disk drive
B. Network disk drive
C. Logical volume manager
D. Physical volume manager
Answer: C

3. Which statement about the use of internal and external virtual networks is true?
A. Internal networks are used to connect to a physical NIC, whereas external networks are used to connect to a physical network.
B. Internal networks are used to connect to VLANs on the physical network, whereas external networks are used to connect to a physical network.
C. Internal networks are used to connect to a physical network, whereas external networks are used to connect to Virtual Machines on multiple servers.
D. Internal networks are used to connect to other Virtual Machines on the same server, whereas external networks are used to connect to physical NICs.
Answer: D

4. An administrator is configuring a new XenServer implementation and wants to use the Paravirtualized (PV) drivers for Windows virtual machines.
What must the administrator install in order to use the PV drivers?
A. XenServer Tools
B. WHQL Signed Driver
C. Local Host Network Tools
D. RealTek Fast Ethernet driver
Answer: A

5. What is the function of full emulation?
A. Simulating the complete hardware
B. Running applications as conventional local software
C. Leveraging of a hypervisor for the underlying technology
D. Offering an API that modifies the guest operating system
Answer: A

6. What is the maximum number of physical CPU cores supported with XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.1?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: B

7. Scenario: A Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition virtual machine (VM) running on a XenServer host with four physical CPUs is consistently reporting high virtual CPU (vCPU) utilization. Currently, the VM is assigned one vCPU.
According to Citrix best practices, what is the maximum number of vCPUs that can be assigned to the Windows Server 2003 VM?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
Answer: C

8. What is an advantage of application-based virtualization solutions?
A. Higher consolidation ratios
B. Data center high availability
C. Centralized server management
D. The ability to use diverse hardware
Answer: D

9. By default, MAC addresses assigned to Virtual Machines (VM) virtual network interfaces are __________? (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. cloned from the XenServer
B. determined by the host server
C. assigned manually by administrators
D. auto-assigned by the server using random algorithm
Answer: D

10. Which mechanism for changing the physical network IP configuration is supported on a XenServer 1 host?
A. Use the xe command line interface
B. Use the XenServer CD installer system
C. Use of the XenCenter Client network configuration menu
D. Use a text editor to edit the network configuration files in control domain
Answer: A

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1. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You install and configure the DHCP service on a server as show in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that computers can receive IP configurations from the DHCP server.
What should you do?
A. Add a scope option.
B. Add a server option.
C. Authorize the DHCP server.
D. Reconcile the DHCP scope.
Answer: C

2. Your company has two offices.
The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. You have two domain controllers named DC2 and DC3. All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You verify the IP configuration of Server1 as shown in the following Command Prompt window.
You need to ensure that Server1 can locate a domain controller if a single server fails.
Which IP configuration should you change on Server1?
A. Add 10.10.0.2 as a DNS server.
B. Add 10.10.0.2 as a WINS server.
C. Add 10.11.0.20 as a WINS server.
D. Add a second network adapter that has an IP address of 10.10.0.20.
Answer: A

3. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The server has an application that runs as a service. The application uses a domain service account to access other servers in the domain.
Security policies require that users reset their passwords every 30 days. After the application runs for a month, the application fails.
You need to ensure that the application starts and can access the remote servers.
What should you do?
A. In the Services snap-in, set the service to log on as the Local System account and start the service.
B. In the Services snap-in, set the service to log on as the Local Administrator account and start the service.
C. In Active Directory Users and Computers, reset the server’s computer account. In the Services snap-in, start the service.
D. In Active Directory Users and Computers, set the Account Expires option to Never. In the Services snap-in, start the service.
Answer: D

4. Your company has two offices.
All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that Server1 can communicate with Web servers on the Internet.
Which default gateway should you assign to Server1?
A. 10.10.10.129
B. 10.10.11.1
C. 131.107.1.1
D. 192.168.1.1
Answer: A

5. You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
On Server1, you install an application that runs as a service named App1. App1 will save files to a file share on Server2.
You perform the following actions:
·Create a domain account named App1Service.
·Set the password for App1Service.
·Create a file share on Server2.
·Grant App1Service the Allow – Change share permission.
You need to ensure that App1 can save files to the share on Server2.
What should you do?
A. From the Services snap-in, configure the Log On settings.
B. From the Services snap-in, configure the Recovery settings.
C. From Local Security Policy, disable the Network access: Shares that can be accessed anonymously setting.
D. From Local Security Policy, disable the Network access: Let Everyone permissions apply to anonymous users setting.
Answer: A

6. You have a stand-alone server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You run the Runas command and receive the following error message: "1058: The service cannot be started, either because it is disabled or has no enabled devices associated with it."
You need to ensure that you can use Runas successfully.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Remote Registry service.
B. Enable the Secondary Logon service.
C. Join the server to an Active Directory domain.
D. From Device Manager, scan for hardware changes.
Answer: B

7. Your network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The server has an application that runs as a service.
The application fails intermittently. After each failure, you manually restart the service.
You need to ensure that the application starts automatically after a failure.
What should you do?
A. From the Services snap-in, modify the Log On settings of the service.
B. From the Services snap-in, modify the Recovery settings of the service.
C. From the properties of the application executable, set the compatibility mode to Windows 2000.
D. From the properties of the application executable, enable the Allow non-administrators to run this program setting.
Answer: B

8. Your company has a main office and plans to open a new branch office.
All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You assign the network address of 192.168.1.64/26 to the new branch office.
You need to configure the network settings for a server in the branch office.
Which IP address should you use?
A. 192.168.1.10
B. 192.168.1.63
C. 192.168.1.125
D. 192.168.1.200
Answer: C

9. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You have a DHCP server that has 10 scopes.
You need to add a DNS server to all 10 scopes by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. In the DHCP snap-in, add a server option.
B. In the DHCP snap-in, add a scope option for each scope.
C. At a command prompt on the server, run the Chcp command and code page 863.
D. At a command prompt on the server, run the Netsh command and configure the popd subcontext.
Answer: A

10. You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains 35 Windows Server 2003 computers; 3,000 Windows XP Professional computers; and 2,000 Windows 2000 Professional computers.
Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is installed on a server named Server1. The necessary Group Policy object (GPO) is configured.
You need to confirm whether all computers in the domain have received all approved updates from Server1.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Install and configure Urlscan.exe.
B. At the command prompt, type gpresult /scope COMPUTER.
C. Open the WSUS console. Run the Status of Computers report.
D. Open the WSUS console. Run the Synchronization Results report.
Answer: C

11. You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003. All client computers run Windows XP Professional.
You need to implement a new software update infrastructure. You discover that security patches, critical updates, and service packs have never been installed on any client computer on the network.
You install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server5. You synchronize and approve all of the current security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
You need to ensure that all client computers receive all Microsoft security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Open the WSUS console. Select the option to automatically approve WSUS updates.
B. Install the Automatic Updates client on all client computers.
C. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Controller organizational unit (OU) Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http ://server5.
D. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Policy Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http: //server5.
E. Open the WSUS console. Create a target group and assign all client computers to the group.
Answer: BD

12. You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). Windows Firewall allows the following ports on Server1:
·53
·110
·135
You plan to install a monitoring server on the network.
You need to ensure that the monitoring server can use Server1 to relay e-mail messages.
You install the SMTP service on Server1.
What should you do next?
A. Install SNMP.
B. Install the POP3 service.
C. Create an exception for TCP port 21 in Windows Firewall.
D. Create an exception for TCP port 25 in Windows Firewall.
Answer: D

13. You have a Web server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You attempt to start the World Wide Publishing Service and receive the following error message.
You need to identify which services must be started before you can start the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
What should you do?
A. From Event Viewer, view the application log.
B. From Windows Explorer, open the %systemroot%system32driversetcservices file.
C. From the Services snap-in, view the properties of the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
D. From the command prompt, run Net config server /srvcomment:"World Wide Web Publishing Service".
Answer: C

14. You have an DNS server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You need to ensure that an e-mail message is sent to the administrator if the DNS server service stops.
You create a script that sends e-mail when the script is executed.
What should you do next?
A. Install the POP3 service on the DNS server.
B. Modify the DNS Server service dependencies.
C. Modify the DNS Server service Recovery options.
D. Install the Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration (UDDI) services on the DNS server.
Answer: C

15. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You log on to Server1 by using the Administrator account for the domain. You open Event Viewer and attempt to connect to Server2 but receive the following error message.
You verify that you can connect to Server2 by using Windows Explorer and that Windows Firewall is disabled on Server2.
You open the Services snap-in on Server2 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that you can connect to Server2 remotely by using Event Viewer.
What should you do on Server2?
A. Add the Administrator account to the HelpServicesGroup.
B. Set the Startup Type for the Remote Registry service to Automatic and then start the service.
C. Set the Startup Type for the Secondary Logon service to Disabled and then stop the service.
D. Set the Startup Type for the Special Administration Console Helper service to Automatic and then start the service.
Answer: B

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1. View the Exhibit.
You have more than one table in the recycle bin having the same original name, DEPT2. You do not have any table with the name DEPT2 in your schema. You executed the following command:
PURGE TABLE dept2;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. All the tables having the same original name as DEPT2 will be purged from the recycle bin.
B. The table with dropscn = 1928151 (oldest dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
C. The table with dropscn = 1937123 (most recent dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
D. None of the tables will be purged because there are multiple entries with the same original name in the recycle bin.
Answer: B

2. These are the details about V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT:
SQL> DESC V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT
name Null? Type
————- ——– ————–
BEGIN_TIME DATE
END_TIME DATE
FLASHBACK_DATA NUMBER
DB_DATA NUMBER
REDO_DATA NUMBER
ESTIMATED_FLASHBACK_SIZE NUMBER
Which two statements regarding the V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT view are true? (Choose two.)
A. BEGIN_TIME is the time at which Flashback logging is enabled.
B. END_TIME is the time at which the query is executed on the view.
C. REDO_DATA is the number of bytes of redo data written during the interval.
D. This view contains information about flashback data pertaining to the last 24 hours.
E. FLASHBACK_DATA is the amount of flashback data generated since the database was opened.
Answer: CD

3. Immediately after adding a new disk to or removing an existing disk from an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance, you find that the performance of the database decreases initially, until the addition or removal process is completed. Performance then gradually returns to normal levels.
Which two activities could you perform to maintain a consistent performance of the database while adding or removing disks? (Choose two.)
A. increase the number of checkpoint processes
B. define the POWER option while adding or removing the disks
C. increase the number of DBWR processes by setting up a higher value for DB_WRITER_PROCESSES
D. increase the number of slave database writer processes by setting up a higher value for DBWR_IO_SLAVES
E. increase the number of ASM Rebalance processes by setting up a higher value for ASM_POWER_LIMIT during the disk addition or removal process
Answer: BE

4. Manually, you set the consumer group of all of the newly created users to MYDB_GRP. You want the users to be able to change their consumer groups as per the application requirement.
What was the first step that was needed in the process to achieve this objective?
A. The user must have been granted the DBA role.
B. The user must have been granted the switch privilege as a part of a role.
C. The user must have been granted the Resource Manager administrator privilege.
D. The user must have been granted the switch privilege by using the DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER_PRIVS package.
Answer: D

5. You are using Oracle Database 10g. You performed an incomplete recovery of your database and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option.
What is the effect of opening the database with the RESETLOGS option? (Choose two.)
A. This operation resets the SCN for the database.
B. This operation creates a new incarnation of the database.
C. This operation moves all the redo log files to a different location.
D. This operation deletes the old redo log files and creates new redo log files.
E. This operation updates all current datafiles and online redo logs and all subsequent archived redo logs with a new RESETLOGS SCN and time stamp.
Answer: BE

6. Which two statements are correct regarding the Oracle Flashback Drop feature? (Choose two.)
A. Recycle bin exists for the tables only in non-SYSTEM, locally managed tablespaces.
B. You can flash back a dropped table provided row movement has been enabled on the table.
C. If you drop an index before dropping its associated table, then the recovery of the index is not supported when you flash back the dropped table.
D. When you execute the DROP TABLESPACE ?INCLUDING CONTENTS command, the objects in the tablespace are placed in the recycle bin.
E. When a dropped table is moved to the recycle bin, only the table is renamed to a system-generated name; its associated objects and constraints are not renamed.
F. If you drop a table that is protected by the recycle bin, then associated bitmap-joined indexes and materialized view logs are also stored in the recycle bin.
Answer: AC

7. You have set the value of the NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT parameter in the parameter file to YYYY-MM-DD. The default format of which two data types would be affected by this setting? (Choose two.)
A. DATE
B. TIMESTAMP
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
Answer: BE

8. You execute the following command to enable a session in resumable mode:
SQL> ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE TIMEOUT 60;
What is the impact of a timeout on the statements being suspended?
A. The statements remain suspended for at least 60 seconds.
B. The statements are suspended for 60 seconds and then they are executed.
C. The suspended statements error out if the problem is not rectified within 60 seconds.
D. The statements are automatically suspended 60 seconds after an error is received, and then attempt to execute normally again.
Answer: C

9. You need to check the EMP_EAST partition in the EMPLOYEES table for physical corruptions. You also need to verify that the rows belong to the correct partition. Which option could you use?
A. LogMiner
B. the DBNEWID utility
C. the DBVERIFY utility
D. the ANALYZE command
E. the RMAN REPORT command
F. the RMAN CROSSCHECK command
G. the RMAN BLOCKRECOVER command
Answer: D

10. On Monday, you dropped the DEPT table from your schema and then you re-created the DEPT table in your schema. On Wednesday, you have a requirement to restore the DEPT table from the recycle bin.
Which statement is correct?
A. You can restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature, provided you use the RENAME TO clause.
B. You can restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature and a system-generated name will be assigned to the restored table.
C. You cannot restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature because a table with the name DEPT already exists in your schema.
D. You cannot restore the DEPT table by using the Oracle Flashback Drop feature because the contents of the recycle bin are purged every 12 hours by default.
Answer: A

11. You enabled Automatic Shared Memory Management. The initialization parameters are set as shown below:
SGA_TARGET = 10GB
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 14GB
STREAMS_POOL_SIZE = 1GB
SHARED_POOL_SIZE = 3GB
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. A maximum of 3 GB can be allocated to shared pool.
B. The value for SGA_TARGET can be increased up to a maximum of 14 GB.
C. A total of 14 GB memory will be allocated to the automatically tuned memory components.
D. Increasing the value for SGA_TARGET will automatically increase the memory allocated for STREAMS_POOL_SIZE.
E. Increasing the value for SGA_TARGET to 12 GB will automatically increase the memory allocated to autotuned parameters.
F. Reducing the value for SGA_TARGET to 9 GB will automatically decrease the memory allocated to shared pool from 3 GB to 2 GB.
Answer: BE

12. View the Exhibit and examine the Flashback SCNs.
A user has inserted wrong department data in the DEPT3 table in the USERS tablespace. You use the Flashback Table functionality to rectify the erroneous inserts. While performing the recovery, you chose 2004343 as the Flashback SCN.
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Only the row with DEPARTMENT_ID 290 would be flashed back.
B. The rows with DEPARTMENT_ID 290 and 300 would be flashed back.
C. The rows with DEPARTMENT_ID 290 and 280 would be flashed back.
D. You would have taken the USERS tablespace offline before starting the Flashback Table operation.
E. You would have enabled row movement for the DEPT3 table before starting the Flashback Table operation.
Answer: BE

13. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN):
RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE;
Which operation must you perform before this command is executed?
A. back up the control file to trace
B. bring database to the MOUNT state
C. open a connection to the RMAN recovery catalog, which contains the RMAN metadata for the target database
D. set the database ID (DBID), but only if the DB_NAME parameter associated with the target database is unique in the recovery catalog
Answer: C

14. You lost a temporary file that belongs to the default temporary tablespace in your database. From the options provided, which approach would you take to solve the problem?
A. flash back the database
B. import the temporary tablespace from the last export
C. restore all the data files and temporary files from the last full database backup and perform a recovery
D. not perform a recovery, but create a new temporary tablespace, make it the default temporary tablespace and then drop the old tablespace
Answer: D

15. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform a backup of the DETTBS tablespace:
RMAN> BACKUP TABLESPACE DETTBS;
Under which conditions would this command execute successfully? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The database is in NOMOUNT state.
B. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
C. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
D. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
E. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
Answer: BCE

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1. You develop a Windows device driver for a hardware device. The hardware device uses a simple direct memory access (DMA) controller. The hardware device does not perform virtual address translation.
You need to allocate a 64-KB buffer in Windows that accepts a DMA transfer of 64 KB from the hardware device.
Which routine should you use?
A. AllocateHeap(655536)
B. ExAllocatePoolWithTag(PagePool, 65536, ‘abcd’)
C. ExAllocatePoolWithTag(NonPagePool, 65536, ‘abcd’)
D. MmAllocateContiguousMemory(65536, 0xFFFFFFFF)
Answer: D

2. You are writing an I/O dispatch routine for a Windows device driver. The device driver supports buffered I/O. The dispatch routine transfers 1 KB of data to the user process.
You need to retrieve the kernel address of the 1-KB buffer from the I/O request packet (IRP).
Which field of the IRP contains the kernel address?
A. Irp->AssociatedIrp.SystemBuffer
B. Irp->Overlay.UserApcContext
C. Irp->Tail.Overlay.DriverContext[0]
D. Irp->UserBuffer
Answer: A

3. You are developing a user mode application that contains two processes.
You need to allow the two processes to synchronize access to a shared data area.
Which synchronization primitive should you use?
A. Critical Section
B. ERESOURCE
C. Mutex
D. Spinlock
Answer: C

4. You plan to update a device driver on a Windows system. You download a copy of the device driver file from the Internet, but you are uncertain that the device driver is legitimate.
You need to verify the device driver’s digital signature.
Which tool should you use?
A. Certmgr.exe
B. Certmgr.msc
C. Makecert.exe
D. Signtool.exe
Answer: D

5. You are developing an application.
You need to ensure that the application can read from COM port 10 by using the CreateFile function.
Which device name should you open?
A. "COM10"
B. "%COM10%"
C. "\COM10"
D. "\\.\COM10"
Answer: D

6. You have a device driver that has one monitoring thread named Thread1. The device driver has three worker threads named Thread2, Thread3, and Thread4. The worker threads run every 10 seconds and complete within 1 second. If any worker thread does not run at least once every 30 seconds, Thread1 calls KeBugCheckEx, and then a complete kernel crash dump is generated.
The computer generates a bug check and a complete kernel dump is generated.
You review the complete kernel dump and notice the following:
You need to identify the root cause of the bug check.
What caused the bug check to occur?
A. the priority of Thread1
B. the priority of Thread4
C. the state of Thread1
D. the state of Thread2 and Thread3
Answer: B

7. You develop a device driver for Windows XP that runs on uniprocessor systems only. The driver creates a system thread and a deferred procedure call (DPC). The DPC is invoked by a repeating timer.
The thread and the DPC must process entries from the same work queue.
You need to ensure that the system thread and the DPC are synchronized.
Which IRQ Level (IRQL) should you use?
A. APC_LEVEL
B. DISPATCH_LEVEL
C. LOW_LEVEL
D. PASSIVE_LEVEL
Answer: B

8. You are designing an application.
The application fails because of an access violation. The access violation is caused by a heap corruption.
You need to identify the cause of the heap corruption.
Which tool should you use?
A. Application Verifier
B. Process Viewer
C. Performance Monitor
D. Task Manager
Answer: A

9. You are writing a user application that runs on Windows Server 2003.
The design specification for the application requires user authentication.
You need to ensure that users enter a local user name and password each time the application is started.
Which routine should you use?
A. CredReadDomainCredentials()
B. CredUIParseUserName()
C. CredUIPromptForCredentials()
D. LsaRegisterLogonProcess()
Answer: C

10. You develop a device driver for a PCI device. The PCI device runs on Windows Server 2003 computers.
You test the device driver’s interrupt processing. The computer stops responding.
You need to locate the list of interrupt handling routines in the crash dump by using WinDbg.
Which command should you use?
A. !idt
B. !ipi
C. !irql
D. !isr
Answer: A

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1. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. There’re several departments in your company. The account manager is working with the Classic client but he is new to it. On the contrary, he is experienced in working with the RoleTailored client. He is not clear about what tasks can be performed in the Classic client and he asks for your advice. Which tasks do you name?
A. Viewing graphical statistics
B. Personalizing the user interface
C. Posting operational transactions
D. Development and administration tasks
Answer: CD

2. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. There are two departments in your company, one is Sales department, another is Account department. The company manager assigns a task to you that you implement Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. When you do this, you must make sure that each division uses its own instance of the database server; users in one of the divisions are not bound to certain computers. So which deployment configuration do you suggest?
A. You suggest one GPO, One SDP,and one installation package
B. You suggest one GPO, Two SDPs, and one installation package.
C. You suggest two GPOs, Two SDPs, and two installation packages with different configuration files.
D. You suggest two GPOs, One SDP, and two installation packages with different configuration files.
Answer: D

3. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirement of your company, you are deploying Microsoft Dynamics 2009 with Windows Server Group Policy, where is it necessary to store the installation source? (choose more than one)
A. It’s necessary to store the installation source on a local CD/DVD.
B. It’s necessary to store the installation source on a network share
C. It’s necessary to store the installation source in a folder on a local hard disk
D. It’s necessary to store the installation source on the computer running Windows Server.
Answer: B

4. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirements of your company, you have to deploy Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. After this is done, you’re notified by the manager that the company wants to continue using the Classic client. In the three tier environment, how do you connect the Classic client to the database?
A. You specify the name of the computer where Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server tier is installed and the port number in the customsettings.config file
B. In the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client, go to File, Database, Open, and in the Server Name field, specify the name of the computer where Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server is installed.
C. In the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client with Microsoft SQL Server option, go to File, Database, Open, and in the Server Name field, specify the name of the computer where Microsoft SQL Server is installed
D. In Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client with Microsoft SQL Server option, go to File, Database, Open, and in the Server Name field, specify the name of the computer where Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server tier is installed.
Answer: C

5. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. You publish Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 to a user, in order to make the deployment take effect on the user’s machine, what should he do? (choose more than one)
A. He is required to log off and back on.
B. He is required to restart the computer.
C. He is required to go to Add or Remove Programs and run the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation.
D. He is required to go to Add or Remove Programs and uninstall the previous version of Microsoft Dynamics NAV.
Answer: AC

6. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. In the business environment of your company, Microsoft Dynamics NAV Application Server runs as a service and performs certain tasks on a daily basis. Your company plans to deploy Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. In order to maintain the functionality executed by Microsoft Dynamics NAV Application Server, what should you do?
A. You should run the functionality manually using the RoleTailored client
B. You should run the functionality manually using the Classic client option.
C. You should connect Microsoft Dynamics NAV Application Server to SQL Server
D. You should connect Microsoft Dynamics NAV Application Server to the Server tier.
Answer: C

7. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirements of your company, you are installing the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. Do you know the disadvantages of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow? (choose more than one)
A. The disadvantage of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow is that disk space may be used up.
B. The disadvantage of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow is that database performance decreases.
C. The disadvantage of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow is usage of system resources is increased.
D. The disadvantage of setting the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 database to auto-grow is that execution time of read operations is creased.
Answer: C

8. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. The options below are statements about deploying Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 by assigning it to a user. Do you know which is not true? (choose more than one)
A. The application is advertised on the users desktop.
B. The user opens Add or Remove Programs to run the installation.
C. The system must be restarted for the deployment to take effect
D. RoleTailored client is started automatically after the installation
Answer: BC

9. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. Your company manager assigns a task to you. You have to set up a test instance of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client on a computer. When doing this, you cannot configure any components or providing any settings. In order to install the Classic client, what installation options can you select in Setup? (choose more than one)
A. In order to install the Classic client, you can select Install Demo in Setup
B. In order to install the Classic client, you can select Database Components in Setup.
C. In order to install the Classic client, you can select Developer Environment in Setup
D. In order to install the Classic client, you can select Classic Server Components in Setup
Answer: AC

10. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. You have Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installed throughout your company. Now you set up a test instance of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009, Classic client option, while importing no custom license or database files. . You test the application and then uninstall it.
After you uninstall the application, which components remain? (choose more than one)
A. After the application itself is uninstalled, License files (for example, fin.flf) remain.
B. After the application itself is uninstalled, Database files (for example, demo database) remain
C. After the application itself is uninstalled, Configuration files (for example, customsettings.config)remain.
D. After the application itself is uninstalled, Software prerequisites (for example, Microsoft .NET Framework) remain
Answer: BD

11. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirement of your company, you have to deploy Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. In the options below, which step is required by the published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment? (choose more than one)
A. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires restarting the computer running Windows Server
B. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires logging off and on or restarting the client computers.
C. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires copying the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation package to client computers
D. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires running the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation from Add or Remove Programs on the client computers
Answer: BD

12. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the Developer for Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirements of your company manager, Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0 has been installed throughout your company. Now the company has a new plan that is to implement Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 instead of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0. But at present you are connecting to external components by using the NAS component of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0. In working with external components using NAS in the two-tier architecture, which drawback does the Server tier in the three-tier architecture enable you to eliminate?
A. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of losses of data.
B. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of necessity to use the NAS user interface
C. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of limitation to only one process at a time.
D. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of overload of the database management system
Answer: C

13. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. Your company manager assigns a task to you. You have to deploy multiple Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation packages. You are going to make the deployment with Group Policy, so what can you define software deployment properties for? (choose more than one)
A. You can define software deployment properties for all installation packages in a GPO.
B. You can define software deployment properties for all installation packages within an SDP.
C. You can define software deployment properties for individual installation packages in a GPO
D. You can define software deployment properties for individual installation packages within an SDP.
Answer: AC

14. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. You have Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installed throughout your company. In Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Setup, if you choose the Developer Environment option, which application component is not installed?
A. If you choose the Developer Environment option, Demo database is not installed
B. If you choose the Developer Environment option, Application Server is not installed
C. If you choose the Developer Environment option, RoleTailored Client is not installed
D. If you choose the Developer Environment option, Software Development Kit is not installed
Answer: D

15. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirement of your company, you have to install Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 in the network. During the deployment, you use one software distribution point and publish the installation package to the group policy objects. But an employee named Jason reports that he still does not have Microsoft Dynamics NAV installed. So what is the reason for this?
A. This is because the installation package is corrupted
B. This is because the software distribution point is not accessible.
C. This is because the corresponding group policy object does not run
D. This is because the client computers do not meet the minimum requirements for the installation.
Answer: C

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1. In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to perform EIGRP on all interfaces. All interface bandwidths are set to 1000, and the delays are configured as displayed. In the topology table at Router TIS-RC, you see only one path towards 1.1.0/24.
Why Router TIS-RC only has one path in its topology table?
A. Router TIS-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router TIS-RC due to split horizon.
B. Router TIS-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router TIS-RC because Router TIS-RC is its feasible successor.
C. Router TIS-RD is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router TIS-RC due to split horizon.
D. Router TIS-RB is not advertising 10.1.1.0/24 to Router TIS-RC because Router TIS-RC is its feasible successor.
Answer: C

2. According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at TIS-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here?
A. It will take TIS-R2.
B. It will not take any path. TIS-R4 will drop the traffic.
C. It will take TIS-R3.
D. It will load share between TIS-R2 and TIS-R3.
Answer: A

3. What information can you get from TCP flags while assessing an attack?
A. source of the attack
B. type of attack
C. target of the attack
D. priority of the attack traffic
Answer: B

4. Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP.
How many LSPs will be originated by this router?
A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes
B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes
D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
Answer: A

5. What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Answer: D

6. Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Answer: B

7. NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A. monitor configuration changes
B. monitor CPU utilization
C. monitor link utilization
D. generate traps for failure conditions
Answer: C

8. You are the Cisco Network Designer in certways.com. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Answer: BD

9. The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available.
Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B. It will be removed from the BGP table.
C. It will be considered a valid route.
D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Answer: C

10. What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Answer: C

11. In the network presented in the following exhibit, all routers are configured to run EIGRP on all links. All packets transmitted during convergence are transmitted once (there are no dropped or retransmitted packets).
What is the maximum number of queries TIS-R3 might receive for 192.168.1.0/24 if the link between TIS-R1 and TIS-R2 fails?
A. four queries, one each from TIS-R2, TIS-R4, TIS-R5, and TIS-R6
B. no queries, because there aren’t any alternate paths for 192.168.1.0/24
C. seven queries, one from TIS-R2 and two each from TIS-R4, TIS-R5, and TIS-R6
D. one query, since the remote routers TIS-R4, TIS-R5, and TIS-R6 are natural stubs in EIGRP
Answer: A

12. Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.)
A. reverse the direction of an attack
B. redirect an attack away from its target
C. monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity
D. delay an attack from reaching its target
Answer: BC

13. Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption of service when making topology changes?
A. dynamic reconfiguration
B. path MTU discovery
C. auto setup
D. remote management
Answer: A

14. How many broadcast segments are contained in this network according to the exhibit?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

15. The TIS company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern).
How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
Answer: B

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1. What is produced when Problem Management identifies the cause of a Problem and a workaround?
A. a Request for Change
B. a resolved Problem
C. a Known Error
D. one or more resolved incidents
Answer: C

2. Where can you find an overview of all IT services?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Service Catalog
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Window
Answer: B

3. Which Change Management activity indicates the priority and category of an accepted Request for Change (RFC)?
A. classification
B. coordination
C. registration
D. scheduling
Answer: A

4. Which of the following is not regarded as an incident?
A. a complaint about the service of the Service Desk
B. a standard request for change
C. a report of a breakdown
D. a question about how an application works
Answer: B

5. Which information does Financial Management for IT Services extract from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. which equipment is being used by whom
B. where the equipment has been set up
C. which software version is being used
D. which equipment is causing incidents
Answer: A

6. Certain data is needed to describe an ITIL?process. This includes the objectives and the output. What else is required?
A. activities
B. authorisations
C. environment
D. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Answer: A

7. Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. ensuring the smooth running of the process
B. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
C. channeling data to Problem Management
D. following up on Incidents
Answer: A

8. Which item is required in the Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a Change?
A. whether the Change has achieved the intended goal
B. whether the CI registration in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is up-to-date
C. whether the Management of the IT department is satisfied with the implementation of the Change
D. to which Configuration Items (CIs) the Change relates
Answer: A

9. Which process includes developing a recovery plan?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Problem Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

10. Managing risk is an essential part of which processes?
A. Problem Management and Capacity Management
B. Availability Management and Service Level Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management and Financial Management for IT Services
D. IT Service Continuity Management and Availability Management
Answer: D

11. When an IT service provider adopts and adapts ITIL?best practices, which of the following is the greatest benefit?
A. Work is carried out using a project-oriented approach.
B. There is a central Service Desk.
C. The organization is more customer-oriented.
D. Work is carried out using a process-oriented approach.
Answer: D

12. How does Problem Management differ from Incident Management?
A. Incident Management focuses on registration and Problem Management does not.
B. Problem Management focuses on restoration of service and Incident Management focuses on finding the cause.
C. Incident Management focuses on restoration of service and Problem Management focuses on finding the cause.
D. Problem Management generates reports and Incident Management does not.
Answer: C

13. What does the term "Serviceability" refer to?
A. contracts between external suppliers and the customer
B. contracts between external suppliers of services and the IT department
C. contracts between internal IT departments
D. contracts between IT management and the customer
Answer: B

14. Which of the following processes provides Problem Management with reports about the IT infrastructure?
A. Financial Management for IT Services
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C

15. Which aspect is important when registering security incidents?
A. the person who reported the incident
B. the applicable disciplinary measures
C. qualified Service Desk employees
D. recognizing the event as a security incident
Answer: D

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1. A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

2. A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

3. Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

4. Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

5. Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

6. Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

7. Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

8. A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

9. Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

10. Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies for a given project.
Answer: C

11. The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

12. Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

13. Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

14. Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS) schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

15. A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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1. You can specify the default minimum retention period for protecting Archive Files on Centera from deletion. How is the minimum retention period calculated?
A. from the time Centera copies the file
B. from the time the Archive Process copies the file to Centera
C. from the time that the Archive Process copies the file to the local file system
D. from the time Centera copies the file from the local file system
Answer: B

2. Click the Exhibit button.
Given this information from the Relationships tab of an Access Definition, and the information from this Show Steps report in the exhibit, why is the STATE_LOOKUP table listed as UNTRAVERSED?
A. There is no active relationship for the STATE_LOOKUP table.
B. Q2 needs to be activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
C. Q1 needs to be de-activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
D. The relationship between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP is unselected.
Answer: B

3. One Optim report provides detailed performance information about your Archive, Extract and Delete processes, including basic table and selection criteria information as defined in the Access Definition, the number of key values used to retrieve rows, and DBMS Access statistical information. This report is essential for tuning your Optim processes. What is the name of this report and where do you indicate that Optim produce the report?
A. Process Report; selected for creation on the Archive or Extract Process Request.
B. Show Steps Report; provided on Access Definition Editor.
C. Statistical Report; selected for creation on the Archive or Extract Process Request.
D. File Access Definition Report; selected for use on the Archive Process Request.
Answer: C

4. When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a result of using the storage profile?
A. Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B. Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup device.
C. Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D. Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage management device.
Answer: B

5. You have installed the Optim Server on an AIX system. The system is configured with various internal and external storage options attached to the server. Where should the Optim Temporary Work folder be placed?
A. the attached archive appliance
B. the attached NAS device
C. the system’s internal disk drives
D. the attached SAN device
Answer: C

6. What is the primary purpose of the Optim Relationship Index Analyzer Dialog?
A. It automatically creates indexes regardless of the user’s rights on the tables involved in relationships used in all access definitions stored in an Optim Repository.
B. It reviews the last time the RDBMS statistics were updated for tables used in an access definition and automatically issues the commands to update them if they have not been run since the last archive.
C. It analyzes the index b-trees and if they are inefficient, will drop and rebuild the index automatically or can be scheduled.
D. It analyzes DBMS indexes for relationships used with the Access Definition and to create any needed indexes, if the user has the correct privileges in the database.
Answer: D

7. What are two possible locations where would you could find the fetch strategy chosen by Attunity when working with an extended data source? (Choose two.)
A. nav.log
B. irpcd.log
C. optdbg.xml
D. db2trc file
E. admin_svc.log
Answer: AC

8. Given the command line syntax shown below:
PR0CMND /R JOB=PERSONNEL’ OUTPUT=PER.TXT MONITOR+ QUIET+
Which task is performed?
A. Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
B. Schedules a job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and displays information dialogs during the process.
C. Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and displays information dialogs during the process.
D. Schedules the job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
Answer: C

9. What are three valid levels of Optim Security? (Choose three.)
A. Database Security
B. Object Security
C. Functional Security
D. Network Security
E. Archive File Security
Answer: BCE

10. In Attunity, where is the metadata stored?
A. On the server where IRPCD is running.
B. In XML files where it can be manually updated.
C. In the Optim Directory where the DB Alias is found.
D. On the client where Attunity Studio is running.
Answer: A

11. An Archive File Collection is a list of Archive Files that are treated as a single data source by Open Data Manager (ODM). Which two statements are true regarding Archive Collections? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Collections tab on the Archive Request Editor to specify the collection(s) in which the Archive File should be added automatically.
B. An Archive File may belong to multiple Archive Collections, and an Archive Collection may contain multiple Archive Files.
C. Archive Files contained within a collection do not need to be registered in the Archive Directory.
D. ODM, by default, processes the Archive Files in the collections in ascending date order based on the dates the Archive Files were created.
E. An Archive File containing multiple tables with the same names and creator ids, but with different DB Aliases, may be stored in an Archive Collection.
Answer: AB

12. You have exported an Archive Request and checked the ‘export subordinate definitions’ box. Which types of objects might you expect to find in the export file?
A. Archive Request, Access Definition, Optim Relationships, Optim Primary Keys
B. Archive Request and Access Definition only
C. Archive Request, Access Definition, and Table Map
D. Archive Request, Access Definition, Storage Profile, Report Request
Answer: D

13. The Optim Initialization Exit facility provides which three benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Observes what is being done by a given user at various points in a programs logic.
B. Automates the reporting of Optim requests that fail.
C. Ensures that the users request meets your company security standards.
D. Changes the request, if needed, to pass your company standards or forbids the request altogether.
E. Adds support to Optim for new code pages.
Answer: ACD

14. Which performance enhancement do multiple database connections provide when used during an extract or archive?
A. Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows from multiple tables simultaneously.
B. Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows from a single table concurrently.
C. Multiple database connections allow you to extract/archive rows only from Reference Tables simultaneously.
D. Multiple database connections cannot be used during extract or archive, only during delete.
Answer: B

15. When using InfoSphere Federation Server to access Optim extended data sources, what must be created to define a federated object?
A. a wrapper, a system definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
B. a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a DB Alias
C. a wrapper, a system definition, a nickname, and a DB Alias
D. a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
Answer: D

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1. What is the purpose of a Condition Rate?
A.to create alternate paths in Workflows
B.to assign relative values to inventory items
C.to assign values to personnel for labor purposes
D.to indicate the costs associated with inventory items
Answer: B

2. Which statement is true about the Users and Custodians functionality?
A.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets. A User is someone who uses the Asset. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. For each person entered, the User field, the Custodian field or both must be checked. One person can be nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset.
B.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the Asset or Location. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset or Location. For each person entered, either the User field or the Custodian field or both fields must be checked. One person can be nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset or Location.
C.User and Custodians can be created for Assets, Locations and Configuration Items (CIs). The dialog box has a table window for creating Users and Custodians and another for creating Primary Contacts who are used for communicating information about the Asset, Location or CI by email or bulletin board. A person can be a user or a custodian, or both a user and a custodian.
D.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the Asset. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. The Primary Contact is used for communicating information about the Asset or Location by email or bulletin board. These three fields act like a radio button, only one of them can be checked on each person record.
Answer: B

3. Which applications record the history of attribute changes made on the Specifications tab, without having to use e-Audit as defined in Database Configuration?
A.Asset, Configuration Item
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template
C.Item Master, Service Item, Tool, Job Plan
D.Asset, Location, Item Master, Service Item, Tool
Answer: A

4. Which statement is correct?
A.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Asset, Location and Configuration Item (CI) applications.
B.A Service Request, Incident, Problem, Work Order, Change or Release in the Assets, Locations and CI applications can be created.
C.A Service Request or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications. A Ticket or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
D.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications, but you can not create an activity or task. A Ticket or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
Answer: B

5. The appropriate status to invoke a Preventive Maintenance (PM) alert has been determined to be in the Organization application.
What is the Select Action menu item where this can be set?
A.PM options
B.Asset options
C.System settings
D.Work Order options
Answer: A

6. What is a Failure Code hierarchy?
A.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Work Classification
B.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on an Asset Classification
C.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Failure Classification
D.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Location Classification
Answer: C

7. Which Asset fields must have data for the record to be saved to the database?
A.Site, Location, Type
B.Site, Status, Location
C.Site, Status, Asset Up?
D.Status, Location, Failure Class
Answer: C

8. When can Material Receipts be changed if inspection is not required?
A.prior to saving the Receipt Line
B.prior to inspecting the Receipt Line
C.prior to approving the Receipt Line
D.prior to completing the Receipt Line
Answer: A

9. Which three objects have rotating records? (Choose three.)
A.Person
B.Assets
C.Locations
D.Job Plans
E.Item Master
F.Service Items
Answer: BCE

10. From which three applications is it possible to create a Work Order? (Choose three.)
A.Assets
B.Routes
C.Job Plan
D.Work View
E.Configuration Items
F.Condition Monitoring
Answer: AEF

11. When creating a purchase contract, what is the purpose of checking the Change Price on Use field?
A.It specifies that the price in the purchase order (PO) is only an estimated price.
B.It specifies that when a PO is issued against this contract, the price must be changed.
C.It specifies that the price of a given related item can be changed on related POs or purchase requests.
D.It specifies that the price of a given item specified in the Master Contract is reduced or increased, based on market conditions.
Answer: C

12. Which item type(s) can be used as a rotating item on both an Asset and a Location?
A.Item only
B.Item and Tool only
C.Item, Service Item, Tool
D.Item and Service Item only
Answer: B

13. Click the Exhibit button.
The diagram in the exhibit shows a dialog box that opens when the Select Value option is selected from the Asset or Location field on a Service Request. The Filter By field has three options User/Custodian, Public and All.
In which application can the default for this field be changed?
A.Organizations
B.Service Requests
C.Application Designer
D.Database Configuration
Answer: D

14. Where are Ticket Templates used?
A.Work Requests
B.Service Requests
C.Desktop Requisitions
D.Work Order Tracking
Answer: B

15. Which field(s) are hidden on the Asset application and may need the Application Designer in order to display them?
A.Priority
B.Failure Class
C.Calendar and Shift Number
D.GL Account, Warranty Expiry Date
Answer: D

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1. According to best practices, which step should an administrator perform before booting the installer CD to upgrade to XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 from XenServer 4.x?
A. Suspend any running virtual machines
B. Delete the current server configuration
C. Re-enter the physical network configuration
D. Backup the existing virtual machines (VMs) with a VM export
Answer: D

2. Which two physical hardware configurations are supported by XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. 512GB RAM
B. 256GB RAM
C. 32 CPU cores
D. 128 CPU cores
E. 32-bit architecture
F. 64-bit architecture
Answer: CF

3. Scenario: An administrator is installing XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 in an environment. The administrator has two disks available for storage. According to best practices, how should the administrator configure the local disk storage repositories (SRs) during the initial XenServer installation?
A. Install XenServer on one disk and the control domain on the other disk
B. Install XenServer on one disk and the virtual machine SR on the other disk
C. Install XenServer and an in-place upgrade partition on one disk and the control domain on the other disk
D. Install XenServer and the virtual machine SR on one disk and an in-place upgrade partition on the other disk
Answer: B

4. In which three locations could an administrator go within XenCenter to create a new virtual machine? (Choose three.)
A. VM menu
B. Tools menu
C. New VM button
D. Templates menu
E. Add New Server button
Answer: ACD

5. What are two differences between a Microsoft Windows virtual machine (VM) installation of the XenServer Tools and a Linux VM installation of the XenServer Tools? (Choose two.)
A. The XenServer Tools are pre-installed on a Windows VM but NOT on a Linux VM
B. The XenServer Tools CD is automatically detected on a Windows VM but must be mounted on a Linux VM
C. The XenServer Tools do NOT need to be installed on a Linux VM but do need to be installed on a Windows VM
D. The XenServer Tools are installed on a Linux VM using the command line interface (CLI) but installed on a Windows VM using the GUI installer
Answer: BD

6. How much disk space is required for the control domain and guest VM storage repository in a XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 installation?
A. 4 GB
B. 8 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 32 GB
Answer: C

7. Which two steps must an administrator take to create a Microsoft Windows virtual machine using the XenConvert Physical to Virtual (P2V) conversion tool? (Choose two.)
A. Modify device drivers
B. Reboot the physical machine
C. Run XenConvert on the physical Windows machine
D. Import the template or image into the XenServer host
Answer: CD

8. To allow for rapid deployment of XenServer hosts in a large environment, an administrator decides to install XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 using a network boot process. To which type of server must the administrator configure DHCP to communicate?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. HTTPS
Answer: C

9. An administrator created a template of a Microsoft Windows XP SP3 virtual machine (VM) and now needs to modify it. How can the administrator modify the template?
A. Power on the VM template, make the changes and save the template
B. Export the template from the XenServer host, import it to another system, power it on and make the changes
C. Put the XenServer host in Maintenance Mode, make the changes to the VM template and then exit Maintenance Mode
D. Create a new VM based on the original template, make the changes to the new VM and turn the new VM into the new template
Answer: D

10. Where can an administrator determine when a XenServer Enterprise Edition 0 license will expire?
A. XenCenter
B. XenServer Tools
C. mycitrix.com web site
D. Citrix License Management Console
Answer: A

11. Scenario: A company has acquired two small businesses recently. The administrator for the company needs to create a template of a virtual machine (VM) that has Microsoft Exchange running on Microsoft Windows Server 2003. The template will be used to create two more VMs to accommodate the recent business expansion. In which way should the administrator create the template?
A. Take a regular snapshot of the VM
B. Create a template using an ISO image
C. Create a template VM using a Windows Server 2003 Install CD
D. Take an existing clean Windows Server 2003 VM and turn it into a template
Answer: D

12. Scenario: An administrator wants to create a new virtual machine (VM) on XenServer1, which does NOT reside in the current resource pool. The administrator wants to keep the configurations exactly the same as those in the resource pool but does NOT want to manually configure the new VM. How can the administrator create the new VM with the same configurations as those in the resource pool?
A. Copy the VM to a shared storage location and export it to XenServer1
B. Convert the resource pool VM to a template and start it on XenServer1
C. Make a backup of the desired VM configurations and save it to a shared storage location before exporting it to XenServer1
D. Create a custom template of the resource pool VM and import it to XenServer1 then create a new VM from the template on XenServer1
Answer: D

13. What are two best practices for cleaning up a virtual machine after completing a Physical to Virtual (P2V) migration using XenConvert? (Choose two.)
A. Install XenServer Tools
B. Delete any local user accounts on the machine that are not in use
C. Remove and reinstall applications such as antivirus and anti-spyware
D. Remove any hardware related software such as management utilities and unused drivers
Answer: AD

14. Scenario: During the creation of a Microsoft Windows 2003 Standard Edition server virtual machine (VM), an administrator is asked to make as many processors available as possible to allow a developer to test a new multi-cpu application. What is the maximum number of VCPUs that an administrator can assign to this VM?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

15. Scenario: An organization has a single installation of XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.0. The administrator plans to upgrade the host to version 5.0. Which upgrade path should the administrator take?
A. Upgrade the XenServer using Emergency Mode
B. Upgrade directly from version 4.0 to version 5.0
C. Upgrade to version 4.1 and then upgrade to version 5.0
D. Upgrade XenCenter to 5.0 and use the Updates Manager
Answer: C

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1. Scenario: An administrator moved a server from a test environment to a production environment and received an error message stating the IMA service could NOT start in a timely fashion.What should the administrator do to allow the IMA Service to start successfully?
A. Modify the IMA Service test interval
B. Modify the polling interval for the IMA Service
C. Increase the timeout value for the IMA Service
D. Increase the timeout value for Application Launch
Answer: C

2. An administrator would like to ensure consistency of hotfixes across all the Citrix XenApp servers running on Windows Server 2008 in a farm. Which hotfix list specification should the administrator use to create the hotfix list?
A. Hotfix name
B. OS platform
C. Product name
D. Configuration file path
Answer: B

3. Which two reasons would cause an administrator to exclude certain applications from Memory Optimization before testing them? (Choose two.)
A. Some application components are digitally signed
B. The applications allow Windows to load the .DLL files
C. The applications are memory-intensive when run in multiple sessions
D. The applications use Windows Rights Management to protect .DLL files
E. The applications download additional components from the Internet during installation
Answer: AD

4. If the Citrix IMA service fails to restart, how should an administrator resolve the issue?
A. Open the MF20.DSN file and verify the workstation ID
B. Open a command prompt and type DSMAINT CONFIG
C. Open the Access Management Console and run Discovery
D. Open a command prompt and type DSMAINT RECREATELHC
Answer: D

5. Which SQL replication model is supported for use with a XenApp data store?
A. Merge replication
B. Snapshot replication
C. Transactional replication with queued updating subscribers
D. Transactional replication with immediate updating subscribers
Answer: D

6. Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that users on Windows XP workstations launch published applications with 16-bit colors in a 1024X768 session window. Users in this environment are launching published applications in seamless mode. Which user experience setting should the administrator use in the ICAClient.ADM template?
A. Audio
B. Display
C. Graphics
D. Applications
Answer: B

7. Scenario: Printing errors are generated randomly in a Citrix XenApp server farm. An investigation reveals that the Citrix Print Manager Service has been failing at random intervals. An administrator is asked to use the Health Monitoring and Recovery feature to check the service.What should the administrator do to monitor the service?
A. Create a custom test
B. Install the HMR Test Pack
C. Add the CPSVCTEST.EXE test
D. Add the SPOOLERTEST.EXE test
Answer: C

8. In which location can an administrator change the poll interval for the IMA Service when using a SQL data store database?
A. Data store server registry
B. Citrix XenApp server registry
C. Access Management Console
D. XenApp Advanced Configuration tool
Answer: B

9. Scenario: An administrator enables Special Folder Redirection in a Citrix XenApp farm. Windows Vista users are able to save files successfully to their local Documents’ folder. However, when a user tries to save a music file to the Music folder, the user was unable to see the file on the local client drive.What would prevent the user from seeing the saved music file on the local machine?
A. The user saved the file as a .WAV instead of .MP3
B. The Special Folder Redirection feature only works for the Documents and Desktop folders
C. The "Provide special folder redirection to all users" option is de-selected in the XenApp Web site properties
D. The "Provide special folder redirection to all users" option is de-selected in the XenApp Services site properties
Answer: B

10. Scenario: Users have complained that some of their applications sometimes do NOT appear when they browse through their published applications on the Web Interface site. The help desk staff has instructed users to refresh the Web Interface site in order to see their application.What can the administrator do to stop these inconsistencies from occurring?
A. Recreate the Web Interface site
B. Reinstall the affected published applications
C. Recreate the Local Host Cache on the XML broker
D. Issue the IISRESET command on the Web Interface server
Answer: C

11. Scenario: An administrator of a multi-zone Citrix XenApp farm has implemented zone preference and failover in order to direct users to the closest zone. Over time, the administrator has noticed that some users are NOT being directed to the proper zone. All zones and zone preference and failover configurations have been reviewed and are configured correctly. Which two steps should the administrator take to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the Citrix XML Service
B. Run IISRESET on all Web Interface servers
C. Recreate the Local Host Cache on all the Data Collectors
D. Ensure that the ICA protocol is listening on TCP port 1494
E. Ensure all users access hosted applications through a Web Interface site
Answer: CE

12. Scenario: An administrator must implement application streaming to client workstations with no offline access. The company is separated across two branches, New York and California with internal users only. The branches are connected with a dedicated WAN. The IT Manager does NOT want application profiles streamed over the WAN. The Citrix XenApp servers are located at the New York branch.Which configuration should the administrator perform to implement application streaming in this environment?
A. Create an IIS-based file share for the profiles at the New York branch
B. Ensure that only application differentials are streamed to the client device
C. Publish the application using the "Cache at application launch" option when publishing the streamed application
D. Create a file share for the streamed profiles at each location with both locations containing an exact copy of the profiles
Answer: D

13. The administrator of a Citrix XenApp farm enables ICA Keep-Alive, but notices that the ICA Keep-Alive settings are NOT being used. What could the administrator have done to prevent the ICA Keep-Alive settings from being used?
A. Blocked ICA ports
B. Enabled Session Reliability
C. Changed the idle timeout settings
D. Disabled the Client Auto Reconnect feature
Answer: B

14. Scenario: A law firm has two offices, one in New York and the other in Chicago. The Citrix XenApp farm is configured with two zones, one for New York and one for Chicago. The administrators would like to ensure that lawyers traveling to either office can log on to the local Citrix XenApp servers at that location for better user experience. All lawyers are in the Active Directory group "Lawyers". Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure that the lawyers log on to the local Citrix XenApp servers closest to them? (Choose two.)
A. Filter by users
B. Filter by servers
C. Filter by client IP address
D. Configure an Active Directory group policy
E. Configure a zone preference and failover policy for the farm
F. Configure a zone preference and failover policy for each office
Answer: CF

15. Which reason explains why user sessions may NOT launch seamlessly in a Citrix XenApp environment?
A. Users are launching applications for the first time
B. The XenApp plugin needs to be upgraded to version 11 or later
C. These users are NOT launching this application through Web Interface
D. An administrator may have applied a policy using the ICAClient.ADM template
Answer: D

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1. A disk group is set to double protection level and contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens when there is simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same Redundant Storage Set?
A. The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
B. Vraid1 data migrate to Vraid5.
C. The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
D. The Vraid1 data from the failed disks is reconstructed.
Answer: D

2. You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen if a single disk fails?
A. The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B. The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
C. The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
D. The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
Answer: A

3. How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB Vraid1 Vdisks?
A. The group does not need to relevel.
B. across 16 disks in the group
C. across 15 disks in the group
D. across 14 disks in the group
E. across 10 disks in the group
Answer: D

4. What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the EVA context?
A. smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B. smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C. disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D. data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
Answer: B

5. What happens when you set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an EVA to single?
A. Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B. A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
C. One disk is reserved as spare space.
D. A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
Answer: D

6. Which interconnect technology is used when integrating the mpx110 router into an EVA solution?
A. FCIP
B. FICON
C. iSCSI
D. WDM
Answer: A

7. Which interface is used to connect a FATA drive to an EVA controller? (Select two.)
A. single port
B. dual port
C. Serial ATA
D. Native Fibre Channel
E. Parallel ATA
Answer: BD

8. Which feature is unique to the EVA8400 / 11GB cache (per controller) model when compared to other EVA array models?
A. use of a third cache battery
B. 400TB addressable storage space
C. up to 5GB policy memory
D. maximum of 27 device shelves
Answer: A

9. What is the source of the identifying data that is inserted into the HP CommandView EVA SNMP MIB when it is generated?
A. SMI-S agent on management host
B. hardware ASIC in the first host port that sends the event
C. default parse file
D. controller software-specific parse file
Answer: D

10. Which EVA virtualization features help reduce customer Total Cost of Ownership? (Select two.)
A. load customization
B. LUN definition ruleset
C. pre-set VRAID security
D. reduced stranded capacity
E. significantly increased utilization
Answer: DE

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1. An experienced instructor has just completed an instructional assignment that the instructor judges to have been unsuccessful. The instructor believes that the difficulty experienced was due in part to the scheduling of the course, which conflicted with the work schedules of many of the learners. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate thing for the instructor to do in this situation?
A. Inform the learners’ supervisors that the planning for the course was inadequate.
B. Downplay the significance of learner comments since the course was not successful.
C. Report observations along with comments from the learners to the training manager.
D. Try to obtain the learners’ work schedules to support the instructor’s judgment about the cause of the problem.
Answer: C

2. An inexperienced instructor asks a seasoned instructor to observe a class. The experienced instructor notes that the new instructor is very knowledgeable about the subject matter, but fails to interact with the learners. Which of the following actions would MOST likely improve the situation?
A. After class, the experienced instructor should suggest the use of more questioning and hands-on activities within the class.
B. The experienced instructor should politely interrupt the class and begin directing questions so that the example is clear to the new instructor.
C. The experienced instructor should compliment the new instructor’s knowledge of the subject and avoid giving criticisms in support of building confidence.
D. The experienced instructor should suggest the use of activities that capitalize on the new instructor’s strengths, rather than techniques that may cause discomfort.
Answer: A

3. Training that teaches needed job skills are a powerful training tool for which of the following reasons?
A. Learners are more at ease with the skills.
B. Instructors find it much easier to prepare and teach.
C. Learners know why the skills are relevant to them.
D. Instructors know the rationale for the skills.
Answer: C

4. During introductions, the trainer asks students to give not only their names, but also their title and a detailed description of what products or services their employers provide. The instructor would BEST use this information as a:
A. reference point for analogies to bring the material closer to the students.
B. way to help students get a feel for who has the most experience with the product.
C. method of finding students who may be able to help others later in the class.
D. means for building teamwork among the learners to help them feel closer to one another.
Answer: A

5. A trainer, who has completed a training class, determines that the materials were inadequate for students to meet the learning objectives. The training materials were created by the training center using technical journals and other vendor manuals. Which of the following actions should the trainer take?
A. Ask to meet with the curriculum developers to see if they want help developing materials for the next class.
B. Ask the training center to send supplementary materials to the students in the class.
C. Report the inadequacy and ask the training center staff to contact the curriculum developer to make corrections.
D. Provide the curriculum developer with a specific list of corrections and changes to use for the next course.
Answer: D

6. For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that an instructor will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement that explains why the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal.
GOAL:To use appropriate methods to insure learner understanding of concepts and introduce new concepts.
ACTION: The instructor presents to the learners several large case studies and then asks specific questions related to each learning concept and its application to the case.
A. Likely, because the environment presented is related to real-life application of the concepts presented.
B. Likely, because it provides a transition between the new content and the skill sets already possessed.
C. Unlikely, because students have difficulty attributing a frame of reference to case studies.
D. Unlikely, because case studies rarely address the needs of the tactical learners in the group.
Answer: A

7. For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that a trainer will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement that explains why the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal.
GOAL:To lead beginner-level learners to a thorough understanding of a concept that has just been presented to them
ACTION: Frame systematic questions in a way that requires the learners first to apply the concept and then to recall facts regarding the concept.
A. Likely, because the learners will have the benefit of guidance from the instructor.
B. Likely, because the questioning technique will enable learner success and confidence.
C. Unlikely, because the instructor is requiring learners to begin by responding to a cognitively higher-level question.
D. Unlikely, because planned systematic questioning rarely aids learning.
Answer: C

8. Which of the following are the FIRST ways to open a training session? (Select TWO).
A. Provide instructor introductions.
B. Start right into the lesson with no introduction.
C. Hand out supplemental course materials.
D. Identify the course and state the objectives of the course.
E. Explain the logistics of the course.
Answer: AD

9. A learner asks the instructor a question that was covered before the lunch break. Which of the following would the BEST response be from the instructor?
A. Answer the question in short form, citing where it was covered previously.
B. Redirect the question to the class, and allow other learners to answer.
C. Provide a more in-depth answer to the question so that the rest of the learners gain more from the discussion.
D. Ask the learner to remain after class to review the material that was already covered.
Answer: B

10. A student informs an instructor that the topic being covered is not relevant to their job and asks why it is being covered. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?
A. Assign the student an alternative exercise while continuing with the lesson.
B. Ask the student what they would like to cover in the course.
C. Deviate from the curriculum and continue with another topic.
D. Explain the importance of the topic and how it relates to their job.
Answer: D

11. An instructor is unusually youthful in appearance. When teaching groups of older learners, this instructor has noticed that they are frequently reluctant to accept the instructor’s competence to teach them. The instructor has just received a teaching assignment for a group that will be primarily made up of learners 15 to 20 years older. Which of the following should be the instructor’s FIRST instructional priority?
A. Demonstrate acceptable personal conduct.
B. Demonstrate content expertise.
C. Demonstrate flexibility in response to learner needs and interests.
D. Demonstrate effective questioning techniques.
Answer: B

12. An instructor is demonstrating acceptable social practices in which of the following situations?
A. The instructor optimizes humor that arises from the context of the learning situation.
B. The instructor avoids the use of humor in the presentation of course materials so that no learner is offended.
C. The instructor allows learners to use humor that may appear to be offensive in some situations, but is deemed acceptable to the group.
D. The instructor discourages humor in the instructional setting.
Answer: A

13. An instructor is discussing key material for a course when a learner asks a question that will lead to material that the class is not yet prepared for. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the instructor?
A. Inform the learner that the question can be asked during a break.
B. Answer the question as not doing so may cause the learner to be confused.
C. Defer the question and assure the learner that it will be covered later in the course.
D. Inform the learner that the question falls outside of scope and will not be answered.
Answer: C

14. Which of the following should a trainer take into consideration when providing motivational incentives?
A. They should be perceived by the learners as appropriate and necessary.
B. They should reflect group and not individual interests.
C. They should not require any type of instructional adjustment.
D. They should be given generously and freely to learners.
Answer: A

15. A contract instructor has been hired to instruct a course on outstanding customer service for a large organization. In preparation for the course, the FIRST step the instructor should take is to:
A. speak to company employees about the course.
B. offer ideas for course content.
C. review the course materials.
D. understand the organizational culture.
Answer: C

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1. A company has a new Power 570. They will install 2 LPARs and 1 VIO server. All networking will be virtualized.
Their application requires a large amount of bandwidth, and Link Aggregation on the VIO server will be utilized.
They have 4 dual port gigabit Ethernet cards. The network infrastructure team has advised the implementation team that they are able to allocate 8 ports split between two switches, SwitchA and SwitchB.
How can Link Aggregation (LA) be configured for maximum possible bandwidth available for the LPARs?
A. Configure 2 LA devices, each containing 2 ports from SwitchA and 2 ports from SwitchB, no backup interfaces.
B. Configure 2 LA devices, each containing any 4 of the 8 available gigabit Ethernet interfaces and 1 backup interface.
C. Configure 1 LA device with all 8 gigabit Ethernet interfaces split between the two switches, and no backup interface.
D. Configure 2 LA devices, each containing 4 gigabit Ethernet interfaces connected to the same switch, no backup interfaces.
Answer: D

2. A customer has 5 older POWER5 systems and they want to consolidate them onto a POWER6 system.
What information is important to analyze when deciding how to design the new machine using the System Planning Tool?
A. vmstat and iostat data from the older machines
B. The number of CPUs that were installed in the original machines
C. Data from Workload Estimator (WLE) and IBM Performance Management (PM)
D. Performance data that is collected from the new system after it has been put into production
Answer: C

3. An administrator has a Power 570 in default configuration with a 4 port 1 Gbps Integrated Virtual Ethernet (IVE) adapter. A new application requires that the MCS value for the first port group of the IVE adapter be set to 1.
If this change is made, what is the maximum number of logical ports, across both port groups, that the IVE adapter can provide?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 20
D. 32
Answer: C

4. A customer is interested in server consolidation of their AIX and POWER Linux (SLES 10) environments and sees virtualization as an important component of this.
Which of the following options provides the required virtualization and optimizes the use of the hardware?
A. A VIO server can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk for both AIX and Linux clients.
B. A VIO server partition with the PowerVM Lx86 for x86 installed can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk for both AIX and Linux clients.
C. A VIO Server partition can provide virtualization of network and disk for AIX clients. A separate Linux partition can provide virtualization of network and disk to Linux clients.
D. A VIO Server can provide virtualization of network and disk for AIX clients. A separate Linux partition running PowerVM Lx86 for x86 can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk to Linux clients.
Answer: A

5. A customer has a requirement to provide VLAN tagging and a highly available network infrastructure for the logical partitions. A dual VIO server environment with Shared Ethernet Adapters (SEAs) is in place.
How can the customer support these requirements?
A. Create a SEA failover infrastructure with each having a Virtual Ethernet with a unique PVID mapping to a Virtual Ethernet on the LPAR with unique PVID.
B. Create a SEA failover infrastructure with each having a Virtual Ethernet with the same PVID mapping to a Virtual Ethernet on the LPAR with the same PVID.
C. Create a Network Interface Backup (NIB) infrastructure with each SEA having a Virtual Ethernet with the same PVID mapped to a Virtual Ethernet with the corresponding PVID on the LPAR.
D. Create a Network Interface Backup (NIB) infrastructure with each SEA having a Virtual Ethernet with a different PVID. Map one to a Virtual Ethernet with the corresponding PVID on the client LPAR.
Answer: B

6. The system administrator for a company plans to consolidate the workload of several ageing servers onto a new Power server. The administrator’s intention is to virtualize all network and disk resources for each LPAR in the new system using VIOS 1.x.
Which of the following is correct regarding MAC addresses and World Wide Port Names (WWPN) in a client partition?
A. Each client LPAR will have its own MAC address and WWPN.
B. Each client LPAR will have no unique MAC address or WWPN.
C. Each client LPAR will have its own MAC address, but no unique WWPN.
D. Each client LPAR will have no unique MAC address, but will have its own WWPN.
Answer: C

7. Which of the following can be used to re-deploy a system configuration in a disaster recovery scenario?
A. System plan
B. System profile
C. Critical console data
D. VIO server partition profile
Answer: A

8. Which functionality would a customer use to share available CPU resources between AIX and Linux partitions on a Power system?
A. Dynamic LPAR
B. Micro Partitions
C. Entitled capacity
D. Multiple Shared Processor Pools
Answer: B

9. Which of the following statements is true regarding virtual Ethernet redundancy?
A. Specifying an IP Address to ping is optional with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is optional with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.
B. Specifying an IP Address to ping is optional with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is required with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.
C. Specifying an IP Address to ping is required with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is required with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) Failover.
D. Specifying an IP Address to ping is required with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is optional with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.
Answer: D

10. Which of the following statements is true regarding implementing Live Partition Mobility on two existing POWER6 based systems?
A. The systems must use internal storage for boot purposes.
B. All virtualized ethernet adapters must be numbered below 10.
C. The mobile partition’s network and disk access must be virtualized.
D. Each system must be controlled by a different Hardware Management Console (HMC).
Answer: C

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1. You are working in a document that consists of primarily French words. You include a single paragraph of English and you want the spellcheck to recognize only this single paragraph as English. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. Tools > Spelling and Grammar
B. The document Status Bar
C. File > Properties
D. This is not possible in OpenOffice.org 3
Answer: B

2. You want to change the background color of your page. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. File > Page > Settings
B. Format > Object > Background
C. Format > Page
D. File > Page Preview
Answer: C

3. You want to display the footer of a document. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. View > Footer
B. Tools > Footer
C. Format > Page
D. Insert > Indexes and Tables > Footer
Answer: C

4. How can you display OpenOffice.org 3’s Help system?
A. F1
B. Window > OpenOffice.org Help
C. Help > OpenOffice.org Help
D. Click ee]4a494ad24c62
Answer: ACD

5. Which function does the following icon enable? ee]4a494ad94303
A. Copy formats
B. Copy texts
C. Highlight texts
D. Select texts
Answer: A

6. You want to create a formula inside a table cell within your text document. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. Key F3
B. Key F2
C. Tools > Formula
D. Table > Formula
E. type an equals sign in an empty cell
Answer: BDE

7. You want to display the formula H2O correctly. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. Format > Character > Position
B. Format > Paragraph > Position
C. Format > Change Case > Subscript
D. Tools > Options > Subscript
Answer: A

8. You want to add bullets to a series of paragraphs in a document. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. Format > Bullets and Numbering
B. Insert > Bullets
C. ee]4a494ad903cc
D. eee4a494ad933a6
Answer: AC

9. You want to change your document’s font and font size. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. Edit > Paragraph
B. Edit > Character
C. Format > Character
D. Format > Paragraph
Answer: C

10. You want OpenOffice.org 3 Writer to create each new document based on a specific template (e.g., your letterhead). Where do you define this?
A. Edit > Template > select the check box titled standard template
B. When saving the template you activate the check box ’standard document’
C. File > Templates > Organize, then select your template, browse through the submenu of ‘Commands’ and select ‘Set as Default Template’
D. OpenOffice.org 3 can only use its -in templates as default templates.
Answer: C

11. A master document has which file extension?
A. .ott
B. .odt
C. .odg
D. .odm
Answer: D

12. You want to separate your text into columns. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. Insert > Columns
B. Format > Page > Columns
C. Format > Columns
D. Insert > Formatting Mark > Columns
Answer: BC

13. Which key has to be pressed to copy during a drag and drop?
A. Alt
B. Ctrl
C. Shift
D. Ctrl + Alt
Answer: B

14. You want to rotate a word 90 degrees in OpenOffice.org 3 Writer. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. Format > Character > Font Effects tab and select 90 degrees in Rotation/Scaling
B. Edit > Character > Font Effects tab and select 90 degrees in Rotation/Scaling
C. Format > Character > Position tab and select 90 degrees in Rotation/Scaling
D. Format > Styles and Formatting > Select the rotation icon on the palette
Answer: C

15. You want to add space between paragraphs. Which of the following menu items and/or commands enables you to accomplish this?
A. Format > Paragraph > Alignment
B. Format > Paragraph > Text Flow
C. Format > Paragraph > Position
D. Format > Paragraph > Indents and Spacing
Answer: D

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1. Scenario: An administrator must determine the shared storage necessary for the virtual desktops in a XenDesktop implementation. The XenDesktop environment will include Provisioning Server, XenApp and XenServer. The administrator will be using XenDesktop to provision virtual desktops to office workers on desktop appliances. Which two requirements should the administrator consider to determine the shared storage necessary for the virtual desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Size of the XenApp farm
B. Location of caching for Provisioning Server
C. Number of standard images and private images
D. The number of Desktop Delivery Controllers in the farm
Answer: BC

2. What is the role of the XenDesktop Setup Wizard?
A. To install XenDesktop on a server
B. To create provisioned virtual desktops
C. To organize virtual machines into groups
D. To add Microsoft Active Directory OUs for the Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: B

3. On which component must an administrator run the Active Directory Configuration Wizard for a XenDesktop implementation?
A. XenServer
B. Domain Controller
C. Provisioning Server
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: D

4. Which four XenDesktop 2.0 Enterprise Edition components make use of the standard Citrix licensing infrastructure? (Choose four).
A. XenApp
B. XenServer
C. WANScaler
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
E. Provisioning Server for Desktops
F. Access Gateway Standard Edition
Answer: ADEF

5. Scenario: An administrator is implementing a XenDesktop environment that will use XenApp to stream the applications, Provisioning Server to stream the operating system and XenServer to host the virtual machines. The administrator has completed the installation of the components including the vDisks and is now beginning the creation of the virtual machines.Which template should the administrator create in this scenario?
A. A template with two NICs
B. A local fixed disk template
C. A template without a hard drive
D. A TFTP chained bootstrap disk template
Answer: C

6. An administrator is planning a XenDesktop implementation and needs to take into consideration how much storage will be necessary for the implementation.Which two XenDesktop configuration options could the administrator implement to reduce storage usage? (Choose two.)
A. Stream applications through XenApp
B. Host the virtual desktops through XenServer
C. Provision standard images through Provisioning Server
D. Configure Microsoft Active Directory with roaming profiles for all users
Answer: AC

7. An administrator should configure desktops as assigned when __________. (Choose the phrase that correctly completes the sentence.)
A. XenApp will be used to deliver applications
B. users will be installing their own applications
C. the administrator needs to apply specific access policies to a few users
D. roaming profiles are used to allow end users to personalize their desktops
Answer: B

8. Scenario: An administrator is about to install XenDesktop 2.0 Enterprise Edition for a large environment with thousands of users. The administrator plans to install the Desktop Delivery Controller and the components necessary to allow it to run correctly.According to best practices, what must the administrator install prior to installing the Desktop Delivery Controller in this environment?
A. Web server
B. Desktop Receiver
C. Microsoft SQL server
D. Virtual Desktop Agent
Answer: C

9. An administrator is implementing a XenDesktop environment that requires resource pools. When creating the resource pools, the administrator should make sure that __________ and __________.
(Choose two phrases that correctly complete the sentence.)
A. the NICs across all members connect to the same networks
B. the NICs used for the servers in the resource pool are from the same vendor
C. the NICs used for the servers in the resource pool are in the same order on each system
D. the virtual machines hosted by the servers in the resource pool need the same number of NICs
Answer: AC

10. What are two roles of a DHCP server in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Route PXE boot to the Provisioning Server vDisks
B. Make DHCP reservations for XenDesktop components
C. Assign IP addresses to new virtual desktops dynamically
D. Apply static IP addresses to virtual desktops as they are created
E. Replicate DCHP boot options from the Provisioning Server to the XenServer
Answer: AC

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1. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) uses international standards defined by ITU-T, an advisory committee under the ITU, to provide recommendations for global standards. It transmits voice, data and video communications as well as telephone signaling information, using internationally approved protocols to provide faster, economical and high QoS services.
What is ISDN divided into?
A. Central Office Trunks (COT) and Direct Inward Dial (DID) Trunks
B. Foreign Exchange (FX) and Wide Area Telephone Service (WATS) trunks
C. Basic Rate Interface (BRI) and Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
D. H.323 and SIP media paths
Answer: C

2. Click on the Exhibit button.
Before any other tables can be provisioned, which settings must have been provisioned in the ESN Data Block?
A. Maximum parameters, including Maximum number of Digit Manipulation Tables (MXDM), Maximum number of Route Lists (MXRL), Maximum number of Supplemental Digit restriction blocks (MXSD) and Maximum number of Steering Codes (MXSC)
B. NARS/BARS Access Code 1 (AC1) and NARS/BARS Access Code 2 (AC2)
C. NCOS Map (NMAP)
D. Time of Day Schedules (TODS) and Routing Controls (RTCL)
Answer: A

3. The Communication Server (CS) 1000 VoIP network architecture uses a Gatekeeper.
Which function does the CS 1000 Gatekeeper provide?
A. Receives call setup requests.
B. Converts one media stream to another, such as voice packets to analog.
C. Functions as a server and client to make requests on behalf of other clients.
D. Performs address translation and admission control.
Answer: D

4. Click on the Exhibit button.
Given the customer Route List Index shown in the exhibit, what is the first expensive route that a call placed on that RLI could take?
A. Entry 0
B. Entry 1
C. Entry 2
D. Entry 3
Answer: C

5. Click on the Exhibit button.
A customer’s dialing requirements, listed below, require that all station users assigned an NCOS of 3 and Class of Service of Conditionally Toll Denied (CTD) be able to place toll calls from the United States to Australia.
Australia Country Code: 61
NCOS of 3 has an FRL of 3
Expensive Routers are not being used
With reference to the exhibit, which table will allow all station users to be able to place these toll calls?
A. Provisioning Table A
B. Provisioning Table B
C. Provisioning Table C
D. Provisioning Table D
Answer: B

6. Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) uses trunks as a single or multi-channel telephone transmission channel with wide bandwidth to establish connections between switching systems and distribution points, or between two different types of switching systems.
Which type of transmission do TDM connections, or circuits, transmit, receive, or combine transmissions/receives of?
A. SIP and H.323 Transmissions Only
B. Both Voice and Data Transmissions
C. Data Only Transmissions
D. Voice Only Transmissions
Answer: B

7. Which functionality do TIE trunks provide?
A. connects a telephone companies’ central office and the PBX of a customer
B. connects two different PBXs, whether in the same building or further away
C. allows an outside caller to dial a station on a PBX directly
D. provide incoming or outgoing service only, and not a combination of incoming/outgoing connections
Answer: B

8. SIP connectivity, or SIP trunking, provides a direct media path (trunk interface) between domains.
Which type of servers do SIP Servers consist of?
A. Proxy Server, Redirect Server and Registrar Server
B. Converged Desktop Service (CDS), Multimedia Communication Server (MCS), and Office Communications Server (OCS)
C. SIP User Agent, SIP Signaling Gateway, and SIP Trunk Gateway
D. Microsoft LCS 2500, Microsoft OCS 2007, and IBM Lotus Notes
Answer: A

9. Click on the Exhibit button.
An employee at a company is placing a call to telephone number 214-774-3299. The employee, believing this is a toll call, dials 9-1-214-774-3299. However, this call is a local call.
Access Code 1 = 9
The Central Office utilizes a 7-digit dialing plan.
Give the DMI indexes programmed into this Communication Server 1000 shown in the exhibit, which DMI would be used to modify the dialed digits to outpulse the correct digits to the Central Office?
A. DMI Table 1
B. DMI Table 2
C. DMI Table 3
D. DMI Table 4
Answer: B

10. In an IP Peer Networking environment on the Communication Server (CS) 1000, what functionality does the Network Routing Service (NRS) provide?
A. replaces the basic networking parameters defined in BARS/NARS
B. provides transcoding functionality for IP to TDM and TDM to IP calls
C. centralized management of a single network dialing plan for SIP, H.323 and mixed SIP/H.323 networks
D. sychronizes system configuration and database between Call Server and the Signaling Server
Answer: C